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1. (1.2.7.1-10) The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to _.
(a) maintain steady pressure in a system
(b) eliminate hot air from the condenser
(c) heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
(d) reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates
2. (1.2.7.1-7) If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?
(a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat; the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
(b) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
(c) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
(d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.
3. (1.2.7.1-8) What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as a air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?
(a) Counter flow
(b) Series flow
(c) Parallel flow
(d) Cross flow
4. (1.2.7.1-1) If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?
(a) Sea water flows through the shells of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
(b) Sea water flows through the tubes of the lube oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket water cooler.
(c) Sea water flows through the tubes of the jacket water cooler and through the shell of the lube oil cooler.
(d) Sea water flows through the tubes of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
5. (1.2.7.1-9) If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?
(a) The number of fluid passes cannot be determined.
(b) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass.
(c) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
(d) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass.
6. (1.2.8.1-1) Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed .
(a) solely by the charge applied by the accumulators
(b) by resistance to the fluid flow through the system
(c) only by the pump as its primary function
(d) by the thermal input to the system's fluid
7. (1.2.8.1-2) In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)?
Illustration GS-0062
(a) 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2)
(b) 800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2)
(c) 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm2)
(d) 80,000 psi (5631 kg/cm2)
8. (1.2.8.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing an hydraulic oil's viscosity?
(a) Pressure
(b) Pour point
(c) Cloud point
(d) Vacuum
9. (1.2.8.1-4) The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally .
(a) harmless and have no effect on system components
(b) always neutralized by oil additives
(c) gums, varnishes, and acids
(d) removed by cellulose type filters
10. (1.2.8.1-5) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
(a) reservoir expansion chamber
(b) hydraulic piping flexibility
(c) atmosphere as heat
(d) fluid as friction
11. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a _ . Illustration GS-0098
(a) two-stage, pump unit
(b) combined, pump unit
(c) duplex, pump unit
(d) parallel, pump unit
12. (1.2.8.2-3) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component . Illustration GS-0068
(a) is pilot controlled
(b) allows flow in one direction only
(c) can be adjusted or varied
(d) is pressure compensated
13. (1.2.8.2-5) Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are _. Illustration GS-0103
(a) motor operated with one pump located in the engine room at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage way
(b) manually operated with one pump located at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage way
(c) motor operated with one pump located on the engine room side and the other on the shaft alley side of the watertight door
(d) manually operated with one pump located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley of the watertight door
14. (1.2.8.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an _ . Illustration GS-0097
(a) combined pump unit
(b) series-flow pump unit
(c) two-stage pump unit
(d) double pump unit
15. (1.2.8.2-4) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __. Illustration GS- 0103
(a) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed
(b) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
(c) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
(d) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed
16. (1.2.8.3-1) Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the
(a) ram
(b) actuator
(c) reservoir
(d) accumulator
17. (1.2.8.3-4) The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an _ _.
(a) accumulator
(b) separator
(c) strainer
(d) filter
18. (1.2.8.3-5) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure . Illustration GS-0100
(a) A or B
(b) A or C
(c) B or C
(d) C or D
19. (1.2.8.3-6) The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the .
(a) inner tube
(b) outer cover
(c) outer armor
(d) braided inner layer(s)
20. (1.2.8.3-7) The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is
. Illustration GS-0058
(a) increased by adding a shorter cylinder block
(b) fixed by the pump housing angle
(c) decreased by adding a longer cylinder block
(d) increased by adding a longer cylinder block
21. (1.2.8.3-8) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?
(a) Provide one additional slot and vane.
(b) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
(c) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
(d) Double the casing thickness.
22. (1.2.8.3-3) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by
. Illustration GS-0118
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
23. (1.2.8.3-2) Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to _.
(a) prevent moisture accumulation
(b) prevent vacuum formation
(c) prevent foaming
(d) accommodate thermal expansion
24. (1.2.9.1-1) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?
(a) Simplex gauge
(b) Differential pressure gauge
(c) Duplex gauge
(d) Compound gauge
25. (1.2.9.1-4) Which of the following direct reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?
(a) Differential pressure gauge
(b) Vacuum gauge
(c) Compound gauge
(d) Standard pressure gauge
26. (1.2.9.1-3) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?
(a) Simplex gauge
(b) Compound gauge
(c) Differential pressure gauge
(d) Duplex gauge
27. (1.2.9.1-7) Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent gauge damage?
(a) Hydraulic oil pressure
(b) Heavy fuel oil
(c) Compressed air pressure
(d) Steam pressure
28. (1.2.9.1-8) When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct reading pressure gauge, what should be done?
(a) Attempt to determine the midpoint between the maximum and minimum pressures and use this as an estimate of the average pressure.
(b) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be throttled down (without closing) until the fluctuation ceases.
(c) The maximum and minimum pressures should be noted and added together and divided by two to obtain the average pressure.
(d) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be opened wider until the fluctuation ceases.
29. (1.2.9.1-10) If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?
(a) 29.1 psia
(b) 43.8 psia
(c) 58.5 psia
(d) 61.2 psia
30. (1.2.9.3-5) When determining the level of a potable water hydro-pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?
(a) The sight glass must be drained, blown down, and re-filled before each reading is taken.
(b) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat higher than the level shown in the sight glass.
(c) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat lower than the level shown in the sight glass.
(d) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is identical to the level shown in the sight glass.
31. (1.2.9.3-4) What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?
(a) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank.
(b) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and bottom of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the oil/water interface and the top of the tank.
(c) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and top of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the oil/water interface and the bottom of the tank.
(d) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank.
32. (1.2.9.3-9) What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank level?
(a) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
(b) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.
(c) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
(d) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.
33. (1.2.9.3-1) What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?
(a) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube attach to an end at an opening at the top of the tank.
(b) The vent pipe attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the sounding tube passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
(c) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube pass through the tank top and extend almost to the tank bottom.
(d) The sounding tube attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the vent pipe passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
34. (1.2.9.3-6) In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?
(a) Indicating a fresh water level, where the water is clear.
(b) Indicating a lubricating oil level, where the oil is honey colored.
(c) Indicating a heavy fuel oil level, where the fuel is dark.
(d) Indicating a chemically treated water level, where the water is brightly colored.
35. (1.2.9.3-2) What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?
(a) The bob has a cupped end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(b) The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(c) The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(d) The bob has a pointed end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
36. (1.2.9.4-4) What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?
(a) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
(b) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(c) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(d) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
37. (1.2.9.2-7) If a thermometer reads 80oC, what is the equivalent temperature in oF?
(a) 12oF
(b) 76oF
(c) 112oF
(d) 176oF
38. (1.2.9.2-10) If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?
(a) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the lower end and try to recombine the mercury by several full arm swings.
(b) Repeatedly tap the side of the thermometer until the mercury recombines.
(c) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the upper end and try to recombine the mercury by several full arm swings.
(d) It is not possible to correct this situation.
39. (1.2.9.2-2) What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?
(a) Bimetallic thermometer
(b) Liquid-in-glass thermometer
(c) Bourdon tube thermometer
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer
40. (1.2.9.2-8) If a thermometer reads 850oF, what is the equivalent temperature in oC?
(a) 454oC o (b) 490oC o (c) 1,472oC o (d) 1,585oC
41. (1.2.10-4) What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?
(a) Lime-based grease
(b) Lithium-based grease
(c) Calcium-based grease
(d) Aluminum-based grease
42. (1.2.10-6) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?
(a) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
(b) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
(c) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
(d) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
43. (1.2.10-3) What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
(a) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the pressure changes.
(b) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the temperature changes.
(c) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the pressure changes.
(d) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the temperature changes.
44. (1.2.10-7) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?
(a) The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100oC (high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(b) The oil is formulated to meet the 100oC (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the low temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(c) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(d) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a year- round oil.
45. (1.2.10-2) For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?
(a) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may increase or decrease, depending upon the lubricant.
(b) As the temperature of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating oil remains constant.
(c) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil also increases.
(d) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases.
46. (1.2.4.7-1) The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?
(a) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating by the admission of combustion air into the combustion chamber.
(b) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of auxiliary fuel to the burner.
(c) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the exhaust gas flow.
(d) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient air into the exhaust stream.
47. (1.2.1.1-11) One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
. Illustration GS-0119
(a) act solely as a heat exchanger
(b) act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator
(c) provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases
(d) act as a lube oil sump
48. (1.2.1.1-4) The unloading system on an air compressor will .
(a) increase compressor operating speed as necessary
(b) reduce the compressor frictional load when starting
(c) increase compressor discharge pressure on demand
(d) allow the motor to turn the compressor opposed only by friction
49. (1.2.1.1-7) Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?
(a) The actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas the actuator closing spring on a safety valve acts in tension.
(b) Relief valves are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not.
(c) A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure.
(d) The blow down of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve.
50. (1.2.1.1-12) The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as _. Illustration GS-0119
(a) a diesel engine air start unit only
(b) a constant pressure unit while operating under all load conditions
(c) an on-off cycle unit
(d) a constant capacity unit
51. (1.2.1.1-6) The primary function of the device illustrated is to . Illustration GS-0029
(a) remove all but the frictional load of an air compressor at start-up
(b) intensify the pressure developed by an air compressor during its normal running operation
(c) pre-charge the cylinders of an air compressor prior to the start-up of the unit
(d) open the discharge valves during the compressor s operation to supply compressed air
52. (1.2.1.1-8) The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to _ . Illustration GS- 0120
(a) pump refrigerant
(b) generate electricity
(c) compress air
(d) pump heavy liquids
53. (1.2.1.2-6) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-0175
(a) oily bilge water outlet
(b) oily bilge water inlet
(c) processed oil outlet
(d) clean water flushing line
54. (1.2.1.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to . Illustration GS-0153
(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
(d) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
55. (1.2.1.2-5) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-0175
(a) oil discharge line
(b) clean water flushing line
(c) oily bilge water inlet
(d) tank drain line
56. (1.2.1.2-8) Which of the valves listed for the device shown in illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the back flush mode? Illustration GS-0153
(a) valve "4"
(b) valves "4" and "5"
(c) valves "4" and "14"
(d) valves "4", "5", and "14"
57. (1.2.1.3-2) In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be
(a) non-existent
(b) maintained by the number of disks in the disk stack
(c) maintained by the diaphragm-type, weir control valve
(d) maintained by the ring dam
58. (1.2.1.3-4) A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?
(a) Gasoline
(b) Diesel fuel
(c) Carbon particles
(d) Fuel oil
59. (1.2.1.3-7) Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?
(a) Diesel fuel oil
(b) Metal particles
(c) Water
(d) Carbon particles
60. (1.2.1.3-6) When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will _.
(a) force the diameter of the oil column within the bowl to be narrowed
(b) be retained in the bowl
(c) displace water from the heavy phase discharge port, but of an amount less than that removed from the oil
(d) displace an equal amount of water from the bowl seal
61. (1.2.4.6-9) Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are .
(a) automatically supplied with warmer air on demand
(b) automatically supplied with more fuel on demand
(c) equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers
(d) cycled on and off in response to steam demand
62. (1.2.4.6-5) Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?
(a) Combustion gases flow through the tubes.
(b) Flames impinge on the tubes.
(c) Combustion occurs in the tubes.
(d) Water flows through the tubes.
63. (1.2.4.6-11) A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system _.
(a) opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure
(b) detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing refractory
(c) requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply
(d) must be bypassed at low firing rates
64. (1.2.4.6-10) The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent _.
(a) accidental dry firing and overpressure
(b) uncontrolled fires in the furnace
(c) explosions in the boiler furnace
(d) overheating of the pressure parts
65. (1.2.4.6-8) Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to .
(a) provide a means of draining the boiler
(b) warn the engineer of low water level
(c) cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
(d) open the burners' electrical firing circuits
66. (1.2.4.6-2) In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, .
(a) steam demand response is comparatively rapid
(b) steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
(c) unevaporated feed water is discharged through the skim tube
(d) steam demand response is slow
67. (1.2.4.6-7) The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by
(a) girder stays
(b) fire-tubes and stay-tubes
(c) external boiler plating
(d) separate crown sheets
68. (1.2.4.6-6) The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as . Illustration MO- 0064
(a) forced circulation, coil-type
(b) single-pass, fire-tube, scotch marine
(c) two-pass, scotch marine
(d) two-pass, water-tube
69. (1.2.4.6-3) Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _ .
(a) completely drain the boiler in an emergency
(b) prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum
(c) remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface
(d) remove settled solids from the water drum
70. (1.2.1.4-1) Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?
(a) Sludge
(b) Gasoline
(c) Fuel oil
(d) Lube oil
71. (1.2.1.4-3) For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable .
(a) throughput
(b) additive percent
(c) Cetane number
(d) TBN number
72. (1.2.4.5-1) Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?
(a) Biological treatment plant
(b) Chemical treatment plant
(c) Sewage holding tank
(d) Direct overboard sewage discharge
73. (1.2.4.5-3) By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?
(a) Disinfection is not required on biological sewage treatment plants.
(b) Ultraviolet light irradiation is the only approved means of disinfection.
(c) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of disinfection.
(d) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution is the only approved means of disinfection.
74. (1.2.4.5-4) If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant?
(a) Sedimentation, disinfection, aeration
(b) Disinfection, aeration, sedimentation
(c) Aeration, sedimentation, disinfection
(d) Sedimentation, aeration, disinfection
75. (1.2.4.5-5) Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?
(a) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
(b) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
(c) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
(d) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
76. (1.2.2-8) What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?
(a) Emergency escape breathing apparatus
(b) Powered air-purifying respirator
(c) Reusable full-mask respirator
(d) Self-contained breathing apparatus
77. (1.2.2-10) What statement is true concerning portable power tools?
(a) A power tool fitted with a three conductor cable and three-prong plug may be safely used with an ungrounded outlet as long as a three prong receptacle to two prong plug adapter is used.
(b) Power tools other than those as approved as double-insulated require the use of two conductor cables, two-prong plugs, and ungrounded receptacles.
(c) Unless the power tool is an approved double-insulated type, an ungrounded power tool has the potential to cause a fatal accident due to electrical shock.
(d) Double-insulated power tools require the use of three conductor cables, three-prong plugs, and grounded receptacles.
78. (1.2.2-1) Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?
(a) Bend over and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(b) Bend the knees and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(c) Bend over and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
(d) Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
79. (1.2.2-9) What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners?
(a) When extra leverage is needed for wrenches and drive tools, the use of a cheater bar is recommended.
(b) Push wrenches and drive tool handles rather than pull them for greater control and balance and to avoid injury.
(c) Six point sockets are less prone to slippage than twelve point sockets.
(d) For initial breaking loose and final tightening of fasteners, the use of open end wrenches is recommended.
80. (1.2.2-6) What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?
(a) Full-face shield
(b) Side-shielded safety glasses
(c) Eyecup or cover-type safety goggles
(d) Full-face shield and safety goggles
81. (1.2.3.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __.
(a) rolling member size
(b) inner race cone width
(c) manufacturer's numerical code
(d) outer ring width
82. (1.2.3.1-2) Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?
(a) They have a relatively high power loss due to friction.
(b) They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.
(c) Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention.
(d) They are well adapted to variable speed operation.
83. (1.2.3.1-3) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
(a) Thrust bearing
(b) Piston pin bushing
(c) Spring bearing
(d) All of the above.
84. (1.2.3.1-4) An example of an antifriction bearing is a _.
(a) line shaft or spring bearing
(b) Kingsbury thrust bearing
(c) rubber cutlass strut bearing
(d) ball bearing
85. (1.2.3.1-5) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?
(a) Ball
(b) Roller
(c) Tapered roller
(d) Needle
86. (1.2.3.1-6) Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?
(a) They have a greater tolerance for high-speed applications.
(b) They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue.
(c) They have a greater contact area.
(d) They are installed with tighter clearances.
87. (1.2.3.2-3) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
(a) spring force
(b) a pressure gun
(c) a Zerk fitting
(d) gravity flow
88. (1.2.3.2-6) To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately .
(a) 10-25% of the original void space in the bearing
(b) 25-50% of the original void space in the bearing
(c) 50-75% of the original void space in the bearing
(d) 75-95% of the original void space in the bearing
89. (1.2.3.2-1) Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that .
(a) all air pockets are vented from the grease
(b) dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing
(c) the grease is properly distributed within the bearing
(d) a path of expansion is provided for the grease
90. (1.2.3.2-2) When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should _.
(a) apply even pressure to the outer race
(b) apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races
(c) apply even force to the inner race
(d) tap the outer race with a mallet
91. (1.2.3.2-5) Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?
(a) An acetylene torch and hammer
(b) A tapered 'come-a-long'
(c) A steel drift pin and hammer
(d) An arbor press
92. (1.2.3.2-4) Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?
(a) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.
(b) The outer race should be free to turn in its housing.
(c) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(d) They are usually pressed onto their shafts.
93. (1.2.3.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause .
(a) excessive channeling of the grease
(b) high temperatures to develop as result of churning
(c) emulsification of the thickener additive
(d) gelling of the base oil
94. (1.2.3.3-2) A ball bearing will overheat if .
(a) filled with grease to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing
(b) operated at designed high-speed
(c) completely packed full of grease
(d) in use for a long time
95. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?
(a) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in parallel strokes only.
(b) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in cross strokes only.
(c) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in cross strokes only.
(d) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in parallel strokes only.
96. (1.2.4-3) When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?
(a) The plates should be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets and non-conductive ferrule sleeves with the bolts.
(b) The plates should be bonded together electrically by joining the plates by a bonding strap in addition to bolting together.
(c) Steel and aluminum are so close together on the Noble series that no particular provision need be made for bolting steel and aluminum plates together.
(d) The plates should be bolted together in such a way as to ensure good electrical contact between the plates.
97. (1.2.4-2) What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?
(a) Bronze
(b) Platinum
(c) Zinc
(d) Brass
98. (1.2.4-4) Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?
(a) Dirt, oil and grease must be removed. Rust and mill scale may remain.
(b) All dirt, rust and mill scale must be removed. Oil and grease can remain.
(c) All dirt, oil, grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed.
(d) All previous paint must be removed.
99. (1.2.4-7) In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?
(a) Chipping hammer
(b) Sandpaper
(c) Wire brush
(d) Hand scraper
100. (1.2.4-8) What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?
(a) Thoroughly mixing paint by pouring paint back and forth between two cans.
(b) Thoroughly mixing paint by using a mechanical stirrer.
(c) Removing the "skin" that has formed on the surface of the paint in the can.
(d) Stacking paint cans within a suitable box.
101. (1.2.12-6) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?
(a) Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
(b) Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.
(c) Only when the tags have been removed by an authorized person.
(d) Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.
102. (1.2.12-2) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?
(a) Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.
(b) Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.
(c) Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
(d) Under NO circumstances should the equipment be operated when tagged.
103. (1.2.12-5) Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?
(a) When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY.
(b) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY.
(c) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment.
(d) When operation of the equipment requires temporary special instructions to be provided.
104. (1.2.12-1) When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?
(a) Orange
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Green
105. (1.2.14.1-4) What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water separator?
(a) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
(b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
(c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to the top of the filter housing.
(d) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of the filter housing.
106. (1.2.14.1-5) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unit? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
107. (1.2.14.1-3) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily- water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?
(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
108. (1.2.14.2-1) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by _.
(a) pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container
(b) holding all sewage onboard
(c) treating sewage in an approved system
(d) all of the above
109. (1.2.14.2-2) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV
110. (1.2.15-3) Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?
(a) Flash point
(b) Viscosity
(c) Pour point
(d) Specific gravity
111. (1.2.15-2) Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?
(a) Viscosity
(b) Fire point
(c) Specific gravity
(d) Flash point
112. (1.2.15-7) When heated, fuel oil will .
(a) have a higher specific heat
(b) increase in specific gravity
(c) increase in viscosity
(d) expand in volume
113. (1.2.15-9) The main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to .
(a) prevent loss of suction during rough weather
(b) facilitate water removal
(c) decrease suction head on the pump
(d) increase the amount of fuel available for use
114. (1.2.15-4) The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an _ .
(a) viscosimeter
(b) calorimeter
(c) open cup test
(d) hydrometer
115. (1.2.17-6) What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?
(a) A small valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.
(b) A large valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.
(c) A large valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.
(d) A small valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.
116. (1.2.17-2) Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?
(a) The valve is located too far directly above the deck where it is operated from.
(b) The valve is located too far directly across from the location where it is operated.
(c) The valve is located too far directly below the deck where it is operated from.
(d) A chain-operated valve can be used in any of the applications listed above.
117. (1.2.17-8) What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem gate valve?
(a) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully opening.
(b) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully opening.
(c) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully closing.
(d) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully closing.
118. (1.2.17-3) In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?
(a) A valve located in a compressed air line.
(b) A valve located in a potable water transfer line.
(c) A valve located in a sea water cooling line.
(d) A valve located in a fuel oil transfer line.
119. (1.2.17-9) Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a hand wheel for local operation if the motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?
(a) First move the lever to disengage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(b) Just rotate the hand wheel in the appropriate direction for valve operation.
(c) First move the lever to engage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(d) Motor operated valves are generally not fitted with local hand wheels.
120. (1.2.18-2) On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?
(a) Fifteen minutes before the hour
(b) Thirty minutes before the hour
(c) On the hour
(d) Fifteen minutes after the hour
121. (1.2.18-5) In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?
(a) M/E low lube oil pressure alarm
(b) M/E high coolant temperature alarm
(c) E/R fixed CO2 impending release alarm
(d) General emergency alarm
122. (1.2.18-4) On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the manning of the engine room?
(a) Chief mate
(b) Chief engineer
(c) Officer in charge of the engineering watch
(d) First assistant engineer
123. (1.2.19.1-6) The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V indicates _. Illustration GS-0076
(a) the first pass of the weld is to be back gouged
(b) the arrow side of the weld is to be surface finished
(c) the opposite side of the weld is to be surface finished
(d) a "V" groove weld is to be made
124. (1.2.19.1-10) When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to _ .
(a) control penetration
(b) reduce metal fatigue and warpage
(c) increase heat transfer
(d) reduce oxidation
125. (1.2.19.1-13) A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to each other, and is called a .
(a) seam weld
(b) tack weld
(c) plug weld
(d) fillet weld
126. (1.2.19.1-2) In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a . Illustration GS-0078
(a) double fillet weld only
(b) U-weld over a backing ring
(c) plug and slot weld
(d) V-weld over a backing ring
127. (1.2.19.1-3) Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an _.
(a) inert-arc welding circuit
(b) reverse polarity welding circuit
(c) straight polarity welding circuit
(d) shielded-arc welding circuit
128. (1.2.19.1-9) Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weld? Illustration GS-0077
(a) 4A
(b) 3B
(c) 4B
(d) 6B
129. (1.2.19.2-11) Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxyacetylene torch?
(a) Open the acetylene valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the oxygen valve.
(b) Open the oxygen valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the acetylene valve.
(c) Open the acetylene valve very slightly and the oxygen valve the same amount to light-off.
(d) Open the oxygen valve wide open and the acetylene valve slightly to light-off.
130. (1.2.19.2-10) Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxyacetylene regulators and torches?
(a) The torch oxygen inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
(b) The acetylene regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed".
(c) The oxygen regulator hose outlet thread connection is "left handed".
(d) The torch acetylene inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
131. (1.2.19.2-3) When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the .
(a) cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero
(b) cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses
(c) cylinder valves only
(d) hand valves on the torch only
132. (1.2.19.2-4) When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, _.
(a) open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG
(b) a flashback of flame into the hose is normal
(c) a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape
(d) open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem
133. (1.2.19.2-1) With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an .
(a) nitriding fusion
(b) neutral flame
(c) carburizing flame
(d) oxidizing flame
134. (1.2.19.3-4) Solder is an alloy of .
(a) copper and lead
(b) beryllium and antimony
(c) tin and lead
(d) silicon and selenium
135. (1.2.19.3-2) Tinning a soldering iron will _ _.
(a) add extra weight to the tip
(b) prevent the tip from overheating
(c) prevent tip oxidation when heated
(d) protect the tip from scratches
136. (1.2.19.3-3) Flux is used when soldering, in order to _ .
(a) ensure proper tinning
(b) make the solder "flow"
(c) decrease the melting point of the solder
(d) clean the joint area
137. (1.2.11.6-4) The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal _ _.
(a) tougher
(b) harder
(c) smoother
(d) softer
138. (1.2.11.6-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its _ _ _.
(a) ductibility
(b) elasticity
(c) malleability
(d) fusibility
139. (1.2.11.6-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?
(a) increase in brittleness
(b) increase in corrosion resistance
(c) increase in hardening
(d) decrease in brittleness
140. (1.2.11.6-5) Ferrous metals are metals containing _ .
(a) a large percentage of copper
(b) no iron
(c) a large percentage of aluminum
(d) a large percentage of iron
141. (1.2.11.6-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as .
(a) case hardening
(b) low temperature hardening
(c) annealing
(d) tempering
142. (1.2.11.8.2-13) The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) curling tool
(b) hurling tool
(c) furling tool
(d) knurling tool
143. (1.2.11.8.2-15) The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the
. Illustration GS-0164
(a) nose angle
(b) working relief angle
(c) side rake angle
(d) side relief angle
144. (1.2.11.8.2-7) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool? Illustration GS-0090
(a) Figure P
(b) Figure S
(c) Figure T
(d) Figure V
145. (1.2.11.8.2-9) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure I? Illustration GS-0009
(a) A
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D
146. (1.2.11.8.2-6) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter .
(a) allows for misaligned center holes
(b) has a spring loaded catch
(c) has a headless set screw
(d) is more easily centered
147. (1.2.11.8.2-12) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) universal turning tools
(b) parting tools
(c) form tools
(d) curvature cutting tools
148. (1.2.11.8.2-8) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) left cut side-facing tool
(b) right side end facing tool
(c) cutting-off tool
(d) universal turning tool
149. (1.2.11.8.1-22) Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Soft brass
(c) Aluminum
(d) Mild steel
150. (1.2.11.8.1-9) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _ .
(a) 3/8 inch
(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 3/4 inch
(d) 7/8 inch
151. (1.2.11.8.1-18) The 60 taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the .
(a) taper attachment
(b) tailstock set over method
(c) headstock set over method
(d) compound rest
152. (1.2.11.8.1-5) For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a _ .
(a) compound rest
(b) draw-in collet chuck
(c) steady rest
(d) faceplate
153. (1.2.11.8.1-26) To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on _ _. Illustration GS- 0084
(a) any line on the dial
(b) any unnumbered half line
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) even numbered lines only
154. (1.2.11.8.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?
(a) The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
(b) Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate than the four-jaw independent chuck.
(c) The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
(d) The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an eccentric position.
155. (1.2.11.8.1-30) Two separate work pieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the .
(a) diameter of the work piece
(b) angle of the cutting tool
(c) length of the work piece
(d) none of the above
156. (1.2.11.8.1-3) If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessively increased, the tool will _ . Illustration GS-0085
(a) take a deeper cut in the work
(b) slip in the tool post
(c) chatter
(d) take a shallow cut
157. (1.2.11.8.1-12) A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved _.
(a) closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
(b) toward you to correct alignment
(c) away from you to correct alignment
(d) away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment
158. (1.2.11.8.1-29) When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the _ .
(a) lead screw and headstock spindle
(b) drive motor and spindle
(c) spindle and feed rod
(d) lead screw and feed rod
159. (1.2.11.8.1-17) To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the
(a) feed-change lever
(b) back gear lever
(c) thread-chasing dial
(d) split or half-nut
160. (1.2.11.8.1-7) Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a
(a) spindle
(b) lathe dog
(c) crotch center
(d) chuck
161. (1.2.11.8.1-2) A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it _ .
(a) is dead centered on the tailstock spindle
(b) must be removed by clamping in the chuck
(c) fits into the dead center of the work piece
(d) does not revolve
162. (1.2.11.8.1-28) To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on _ _. Illustration GS-0084
(a) any numbered line on the dial
(b) even numbered lines only
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) any line on the dial
163. (1.2.11.8.1-24) If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should .
(a) stop the lathe and tighten the chuck
(b) increase the lathe spindle speed
(c) increase the height of the tool cutting edge
(d) stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center
164. (1.2.11.9-3) To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a _ .
(a) machinist's rule
(b) feeler gage
(c) micrometer
(d) depth gage
165. (1.2.11.9-11) Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to
(a) click at each increment of measure
(b) prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
(c) stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
(d) eliminate ratchet movement
166. (1.2.11.9-14) What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration? Illustration GS-0083
(a) 0.2280 inch
(b) 0.2340 inch
(c) 0.2470 inch
(d) 0.2520 inch
167. (1.2.11.9-7) A micrometer screw has a pitch of .
(a) 40 threads per inch
(b) 50 threads per inch
(c) 75 threads per inch
(d) 100 threads per inch
168. (1.2.11.9-9) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an
(a) outside micrometer
(b) dial indicator
(c) engineer's scale
(d) thread micrometer
169. (1.2.11.9-16) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to
(a) 2 5/8 inches
(b) 2 7/16 inches
(c) 3 1/8 inches
(d) 3 9/16 inches
170. (1.2.11.9-13) The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is
. Illustration GS-0082
(a) 2.308 inches
(b) 2.368 inches
(c) 2.380 inches
(d) 2.965 inches
171. (1.2.11.9-4) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when
(a) a dial lights on the handle
(b) the scale is read on the handle
(c) the dial is read on the handle
(d) an audible click is heard and the handle releases
172. (1.2.11.9-10) For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of .
(a) five thousands of an inch
(b) ten thousands of an inch
(c) twenty five thousands of an inch
(d) one fortieth of an inch
173. (1.2.11.9-12) The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is
. Illustration GS-0081
(a) 0.4710 inch o (b) 0.4715 inch o (c) 0.4810 inch
(d) 0.4815 inch
174. (1.2.11.1.6-5) Ball peen hammers are sized according to their _ _.
(a) overall length
(b) face diameter
(c) head weight
(d) peen head size
175. (1.2.11.1.6-1) A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a _.
(a) main turbine bearing
(b) condensate pump ball bearing
(c) diesel engine wrist pin bearing
(d) generator crosshead bearing
176. (1.2.11.1.6-2) The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is
(a) a gasket cutter
(b) a pair of tin snips
(c) a jack knife
(d) a ball peen hammer
177. (1.2.11.1.6-4) The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _.
(a) gasket cutter
(b) scraper
(c) flange spreader
(d) spud wrench
178. (1.2.11.1.2-5) When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should .
(a) reduce cutting speed and pressure
(b) increase cutting speed and pressure
(c) change to a finer cut blade
(d) stop applying the cutting fluid
179. (1.2.11.1.2-9) Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters or flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?
(a) Coping saw
(b) Stab saw
(c) Hole saw
(d) Back saw
180. (1.2.11.1.2-1) To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?
(a) 14
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 32
181. (1.2.11.1.2-4) A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you _ .
(a) file a nick where the cut is to be started
(b) turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
(c) coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
(d) apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut
182. (1.2.11.1.2-3) Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the
(a) front of the hacksaw frame
(b) backward stroke
(c) forward stroke
(d) top of the hacksaw frame
183. (1.2.11.1.2-2) To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the _ .
(a) teeth should point toward the handle
(b) blade can be installed in any position for normal use
(c) blade should be kept loose in the frame
(d) teeth should point away from the handle
184. (1.2.11.1.2-11) A hacksaw blade will break if .
(a) too much pressure is applied to the blade
(b) the blade becomes loose in the frame
(c) the rate of cutting is too great
(d) all the above
185. (1.2.11.1.2-7) When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting should be .
(a) 10 to 20 strokes per minute
(b) 80 to 100 strokes per minute
(c) 40 to 50 strokes per minute
(d) 70 to 80 strokes per minute
186. (1.2.11.1.2-6) The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the _ _.
(a) set
(b) pitch
(c) rake
(d) thread gauge
187. (1.2.11.1.5-4) Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridges resembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?
(a) Standard
(b) Reed and Prince
(c) Phillips
(d) Torx
188. (1.2.11.1.5-5) Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross- sectional tip?
(a) Torx
(b) Standard
(c) Phillips
(d) Allen
189. (1.2.11.1.5-8) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?
(a) Square shank
(b) Jeweler's
(c) Flexible shaft
(d) Ratchet
190. (1.2.11.1.5-2) An offset screwdriver is best used for _.
(a) tightening Allen head screws only
(b) tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws
(c) screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver
(d) driving self-tapping screws only
191. (1.2.11.1.5-6) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small parts?
(a) Square shanked
(b) Allen head
(c) Ratchet
(d) Jeweler's
192. (1.2.11.1.5-3) Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?
(a) Standard screwdriver
(b) Phillips screwdriver
(c) Reed and Prince screwdriver
(d) Both B and C are correct
193. (1.2.11.1.5-9) Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have .
(a) insulated handles
(b) larger than normal shanks
(c) shorter than normal shanks
(d) longer than normal shanks
194. (1.2.11.1.5-1) Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _.
(a) prevent the shank from bending
(b) allow turning with a wrench
(c) permit striking with a hammer
(d) allow it to be used as a pry bar
195. (1.2.11.1.1-14) It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is _ _ .
(a) aluminum
(b) monel
(c) mild steel
(d) stainless steel
196. (1.2.11.1.1-3) Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?
(a) Float
(b) Second cut
(c) Mill
(d) Warding
197. (1.2.11.1.1-7) A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of _ .
(a) monel stock using heavy pressure
(b) brass stock using heavy pressure
(c) stainless steel stock using light pressure
(d) bronze stock using light pressure
198. (1.2.11.1.1-2) Double cut files are most effective when used for _.
(a) finish work
(b) rough work
(c) draw filing
(d) sharpening tools
199. (1.2.11.1.1-6) Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become
(a) smooth
(b) rough
(c) rounded
(d) tapered
200. (1.2.11.1.1-13) Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called _ .
(a) standard form filing
(b) cross filing
(c) draw filing
(d) stroke filing
201. (1.2.11.1.1-4) A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file
(a) scraper
(b) card
(c) dressing tool
(d) oilstone
202. (1.2.11.1.1-1) Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?
(a) A double cut file
(b) A single cut file
(c) Any bastard cut file
(d) Only a double bastard cut file
203. (1.2.11.1.1-8) Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular- shaped holes and slots?
(a) Square
(b) Round
(c) Half round
(d) None of the above
204. (1.2.11.1.1-9) The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the _ _.
(a) distance between the parallel cuts of a file
(b) size of the file
(c) coarseness of file teeth
(d) both A and C are correct
205. (1.2.11.1.4-3) A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because _.
(a) pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes
(b) it must be held firmly by the head to strike it
(c) the chisel cannot be struck squarely
(d) the hammer head may be chipped
206. (1.2.11.1.4-5) What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?
(a) Remove the ragged edges by grinding.
(b) Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer.
(c) Use only light hammer blows with the chisel.
(d) Do not strike the mushroomed portion.
207. (1.2.11.1.4-7) Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting .
(a) V-grooves and inside sharp angles
(b) oil grooves in bearings
(c) keyways having square corners
(d) holes through metal plate
208. (1.2.11.1.4-4) The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you .
(a) soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods
(b) hold it next to a wet grinding wheel
(c) grind the cutting angle too small
(d) grind it for long periods of time with excessive pressure
209. (1.2.11.1.4-6) Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?
(a) Square nose
(b) Diamond point
(c) Round nose
(d) Flat cold
210. (1.2.11.1.4-8) Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?
(a) Prick punch
(b) Drift punch
(c) Center punch
(d) Aligning punch
211. (1.2.11.1.4-2) The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _ .
(a) round nose chisel
(b) cape chisel
(c) flat cold chisel
(d) diamond point chisel
212. (1.2.11.1.4-1) When using a chisel, you should _ _.
(a) wear gloves
(b) be certain it is a non-sparking type
(c) hold the tool lightly
(d) wear safety glasses
213. (1.2.11.1.4-9) An aligning punch is commonly used to .
(a) line up corresponding holes in adjacent symmetrical parts
(b) tighten tapered pins
(c) loosen jammed bolts
(d) remove snap rings
214. (1.2.11.1.3-5) In order to tighten the bolts of a crank pin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an _ .
(a) offset box end
(b) torque wrench
(c) dial wrench
(d) hook spanner
215. (1.2.11.1.3-4) Open end wrenches are .
(a) intended for gripping round objects
(b) used with a speeder handle
(c) nonadjustable solid wrenches
(d) not suitable for tubing fittings
216. (1.2.11.1.3-3) Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?
(a) Open end wrench
(b) Box end wrench
(c) Crescent wrench
(d) Monkey wrench
217. (1.2.11.1.3-8) Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _ _.
(a) strong back
(b) chain pipe wrench
(c) basin wrench
(d) monkey wrench
218. (1.2.11.1.3-2) Needle nosed pliers are best used to _.
(a) tighten electrical wire clamps
(b) grasp items positioned in tight places
(c) cut recessed cotter pins
(d) strip insulation from electric wire or cable
219. (1.2.11.1.3-1) The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American National Standard hex head machine bolt is _ _.
(a) 3/4 inch
(b) 7/8 inch
(c) 1 1/4 inches
(d) 1 1/2 inches
220. (1.2.11.1.3-7) A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when .
(a) the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting
(b) the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth
(c) a maximum pull is exerted with one hand
(d) an extension is placed on the wrench handle
221. (1.2.11.2-4) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should _.
(a) start tapping with a plug tap
(b) chamfer the edges of the holes
(c) flood the tap with mineral oil
(d) tap the holes without cutting oil
222. (1.2.11.2-7) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a _ _.
(a) taper tap
(b) bottoming tap
(c) plug tap
(d) finishing tap
223. (1.2.11.2-2) If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will _ _.
(a) straighten out after the third revolution
(b) be out of round on the work
(c) be cut crooked on the work
(d) be rough, weak, and easily broken
224. (1.2.11.2-6) The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread .
(a) die
(b) chaser
(c) tap
(d) broach
225. (1.2.11.2-1) The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to .
(a) pipe fittings
(b) machinist's hand taps
(c) measuring instruments
(d) drill press parts
226. (1.2.11.2-3) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies"; a plug tap is correctly used for
(a) reversing the threads in a hole
(b) the second cut when threading a blind hole
(c) chasing the threads on a circular rod
(d) starting the threads on a circular rod
227. (1.2.11.2-5) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?
(a) Use a tapered screw extractor only.
(b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
(c) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.
(d) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.
228. (1.2.11.3-16) The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to . Illustration GS- 0080
(a) secure tapered pins in position
(b) fasten pump casing flanges together
(c) assist in securing a coupling half to its shaft
(d) bolt motor frames to bedplates
229. (1.2.11.3-12) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw? Illustration GS-0080
(a) figure G
(b) figure L
(c) figure C
(d) figure D
230. (1.2.11.3-4) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is _ _.
(a) threaded with national coarse threads
(b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
(c) made of non-corrosive metal
(d) not clad with any coating
231. (1.2.11.3-8) What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustration? Illustration GS- 0156
(a) The transit washers transmit the rotary motion of the cap screw to the actuating assembly.
(b) The locking plates are used to prevent the fastening devices from vibrating loose.
(c) The grounding straps help prevent electrolysis by improving the conductivity between the components.
(d) These abrasion resistors prevent damage to the surface around the bolt holes when tightening the bolts.
232. (1.2.11.3-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices? Illustration GS-0156
(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C"
(d) "D"
233. (1.2.11.3-1) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
(a) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
(b) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(c) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
234. (1.2.11.3-11) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw? Illustration GS-0080
(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure G
(d) figure L
235. (1.2.11.3-6) Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?
(a) Cap nut
(b) Castellated nut
(c) Wing nut
(d) Square nut
236. (1.2.11.4-8) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurements? Illustration GS-0073
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
237. (1.2.11.4-6) To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a _.
(a) caliper
(b) steel rule
(c) micrometer
(d) scribing circle
238. (1.2.11.4-4) The center head of a combination square set is used to _.
(a) check the angle of thread cutting tools
(b) locate the center on round stock
(c) find right angles
(d) check degrees of angle
239. (1.2.11.4-10) Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?
(a) Inside micrometer
(b) Circular mil
(c) Wire gauge
(d) Gauge calibrator
240. (1.2.11.4-9) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a _ .
(a) hook rule
(b) flexible steel rule
(c) folding rule
(d) machinist's steel rule
241. (1.2.11.4-2) The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to _ . Illustration GS-0079
(a) gage resistors
(b) strip insulation from wire
(c) measure wire diameter
(d) measure insulation thickness
242. (1.2.11.4-1) A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should only be used to .
(a) clean file teeth
(b) punch gasket holes
(c) remove packing
(d) mark on metal
243. (1.2.11.4-7) A dial indicator is used to measure _.
(a) shaft eccentricity
(b) torque of a shaft
(c) scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces
(d) positive readings only
244. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure .
(a) on the unmarked edge of the rule
(b) from the one inch graduation mark
(c) on the narrow edge of the rule
(d) from the zero end on the scale
245. (1.2.11.4-3) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage? Illustration GS-0073
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
246. (1.2.11.5-5) All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent _.
(a) electric shock if the tool is shorted
(b) grounding the plastic case through a short
(c) burning out the motor from an overload
(d) overloading the motor from a short
247. (1.2.11.5-1) A grinding wheel is trued with a .
(a) dressing tool
(b) round file
(c) lathe tool
(d) garnet stone
248. (1.2.11.5-3) A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the
(a) heat of friction
(b) blade from overheating
(c) cut from clogging
(d) blade from bending
249. (1.2.11.5-2) Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?
(a) Wear goggles or face shield.
(b) Be certain that the frame is properly grounded.
(c) Be properly trained in the use of this tool.
(d) Each of the above practices.
250. (1.2.11.5-4) The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth _ .
(a) pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade
(b) pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
(c) pointing away from the motor end of the machine
(d) pointing toward the motor end of the machine
251. (1.2.16.1.1-2) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the .
(a) discharge head
(b) total head
(c) suction head
(d) net positive suction head
252. (1.2.16.1.1-6) The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to .
(a) lubricate the packing
(b) distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box
(c) seal air from entering along the shaft
(d) cool the shaft
253. (1.2.16.1.1-1) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?
(a) Suction head
(b) Pump head
(c) Discharge head
(d) Total head
254. (1.2.16.1.1-11) The shaft sleeve for the pump illustrated is identified by the item numbered as
. Illustration GS-0143
(a) 14
(b) 17
(c) 27
(d) 68
255. (1.2.16.1.1-8) Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by .
(a) wearing rings
(b) internally flooded lantern rings
(c) renewable sleeves
(d) a hardened sprayed metal coating
256. (1.2.16.1.1-17) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed is to .
(a) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
(b) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(c) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(d) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
257. (1.2.16.1.1-4) A pump is defined as a device that .
(a) produces pressure
(b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
(c) is to develop a pressure differential
(d) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"
258. (1.2.16.1.1-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?
(a) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
(b) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
(c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
(d) They are started with the discharge valve opened.
259. (1.2.16.1.1-14) A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming _ .
(a) to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure
(b) in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
(c) primarily to lubricate the shaft seals
(d) due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller
260. (1.2.16.1.1-5) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to _ _ .
(a) separate air from the liquid being pumped
(b) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
(c) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
(d) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
261. (1.2.16.1.1-7) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by _ _.
(a) lantern rings between the packing rings
(b) a compressed packing gland
(c) a liquid seal
(d) the stuffing box gland
262. (1.2.16.1.2-2) To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
(a) Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until the packing is properly seated.
(b) Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
(c) Lubricate the lantern ring with cylinder oil before installing new turns of packing.
(d) Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is operating.
263. (1.2.16.1.2-6) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be .
(a) reconditioned by metalizing and machining
(b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
(c) replaced with a satisfactory spare
(d) repaired by a suitable welding process
264. (1.2.16.1.2-7) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
(a) Scoring may result.
(b) Bonnet corrosion may result.
(c) Heat transfer is restricted.
(d) Valve seat will be damaged.
265. (1.2.16.1.2-5) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be _ .
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
266. (1.2.16.1.2-1) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?
(a) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(b) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.
267. (1.2.16.1.2-4) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?
(a) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
(c) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(d) Block off the sealing water connection.
268. (1.2.16.1.2-3) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?
(a) Throttle in on the discharge valve.
(b) Replace the wearing rings.
(c) Replace the lantern rings.
(d) Throttle in on the suction valve.
269. (1.2.16.4.1-1) One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a .
(a) reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump
(b) volute in the propeller type pump
(c) velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump
(d) volute in the centrifugal type pump
270. (1.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?
(a) Fuel oil service booster system
(b) Fluid power transmission system
(c) Steering gear system
(d) Main circulating system
271. (1.2.16.4.1-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?
(a) gear type
(b) reciprocating type
(c) screw type
(d) propeller type
272. (1.2.16.5.2-3) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
(a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke
(b) place the steam pistons in the mid-stroke position
(c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
(d) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
273. (1.2.16.5.2-1) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
(a) Vegetable oil.
(b) Graphite and oil.
(c) Engine oil.
(d) Oil mixed with kerosene.
274. (1.2.16.5.2-4) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends .
(a) 45 apart
(b) 90 apart
(c) 120 apart
(d) 180 apart
275. (1.2.16.5.2-5) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should _ .
(a) use a packing hook
(b) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
(c) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
(d) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing
276. (1.2.16.5.2-2) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?
(a) Reinforced rubber packing
(b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
(c) High-pressure graphite packing
(d) Low-pressure braided asbestos packing
277. (1.2.16.6.3-1) An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will _.
(a) decrease pump capacity
(b) decrease pump cavitation
(c) increase discharge pressure
(d) decrease reaction ring clearance
278. (1.2.16.5.3-1) An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by
(a) clogged suction strainers
(b) clogged drain valves
(c) scarred cylinder walls
(d) defective intake valves
279. (1.2.16.5.3-5) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the .
(a) pump to operate sluggishly
(b) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
(c) cushioning valves to wear
(d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke
280. (1.2.16.5.3-2) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?
(a) Excessive suction lift
(b) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
(c) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
(d) All of the above
281. (1.2.16.5.3-4) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by _ .
(a) lower than normal supply steam pressure
(b) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
(c) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
(d) lower than normal supply steam temperature
282. (1.2.16.6.1-6) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves _ .
(a) slightly opened
(b) throttled
(c) halfway opened
(d) fully opened
283. (1.2.16.6.1-2) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?
(a) Spur gear adjusters
(b) Replaceable liner plates
(c) Casing gear thrust bearings
(d) Replaceable gib inserts
284. (1.2.16.6.1-4) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
(a) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
(b) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
(c) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
(d) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
285. (1.2.16.6.1-10) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0144
(a) Double screw rotary pump
(b) Deep well centrifugal pump
(c) Simplex reciprocating pump
(d) Triple screw rotary pump
286. (1.2.16.6.1-3) Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by
(a) the use of shaft end caps
(b) a stuffing box
(c) overlapping spaces between gear teeth
(d) a roller bearing
287. (1.2.16.6.1-7) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?
(a) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
(b) The pump can only be used for light oils.
(c) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
(d) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
288. (1.2.16.6.1-1) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
(a) changing the angle of the tilting plate
(b) moving the shaft trunnion block
(c) changing the speed of the pump
(d) moving the slide block and rotor
289. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the
(a) stuffing box diameter
(b) pitch of the screws
(c) direction of rotation of the screws
(d) type of driving gears
290. (1.2.16.6.1-11) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
. Illustration GS-0075
(a) area for pump packing
(b) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump
(c) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
(d) passage for gas to be discharged
291. (1.2.16.6.1-8) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?
(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(c) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
(d) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
292. (1.2.16.6.1-5) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump _.
(a) suction pressure
(b) discharge volume
(c) torque rating
(d) rotor clearances
293. (1.2.16.1.3-6) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?
(a) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low flow.
(b) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
(c) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.
294. (1.2.16.1.3-1) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the .
(a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(b) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(c) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure
295. (1.2.16.1.3-4) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _.
(a) cavitations
(b) corrosion
(c) electrolysis
(d) abrasion
296. (1.2.16.1.3-2) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the .
(a) seal ring is improperly located
(b) pump is not primed
(c) water seal pipe is plugged
(d) impeller is flooded
297. (1.2.16.1.3-5) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by _ .
(a) under-tightening the packing
(b) insufficient lubrication of the packing
(c) failure to seat the packing rings
(d) packing ring rotation
298. (1.2.16.1.3-3) Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of _.
(a) vapor pockets
(b) steam knock
(c) fluid friction
(d) water hammer action
299. (1.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?
(a) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
(b) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.
(c) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
(d) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
300. (1.2.16.5.1-3) The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of .
(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) jet pumps
(c) reciprocating pumps
(d) propeller pumps
301. (1.2.16.5.1-9) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be _ .
(a) cycled at least once a day
(b) cycled once every 4 days
(c) cycled once every week
(d) watched carefully while idled
302. (1.2.16.5.1-8) When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?
(a) Water cylinder drain valve
(b) Steam cylinder drain valve
(c) Steam supply valve
(d) Steam exhaust valve
303. (1.2.16.5.1-7) When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be .
(a) wide opened
(b) 3/4 opened
(c) half opened
(d) almost completely closed
304. (1.2.16.5.1-5) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?
(a) Moving tappets
(b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
(c) Adjusting of the tappet collars
(d) Stay rods
305. (1.2.16.5.1-1) Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?
(a) Direct-acting
(b) Vertical
(c) Diffuser
(d) High-pressure
306. (1.2.16.5.1-6) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
(a) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
(b) variations in the throttle adjustment
(c) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod
(d) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
307. (1.2.16.3.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal facing . Illustration GS-0152
(a) away from the oil pressure being sealed
(b) away from the bearing housing recess
(c) toward the bearing preload washer
(d) toward the oil pressure being sealed
308. (1.2.16.3.1-3) Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?
(a) They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than salt water.
(b) Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the spring compression.
(c) They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
(d) They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.
309. (1.2.16.3.1-6) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071
(a) notch and keyway
(b) bellows
(c) spring
(d) seal retaining ring
310. (1.2.16.3.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?
(a) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
(b) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
(c) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
(d) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling.
311. (1.2.16.3.1-8) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that .
(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(c) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications
312. (1.2.16.3.1-5) Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?
(a) Water under negative pressure.
(b) Water under positive pressure.
(c) Oil under positive pressure.
(d) Oil under negative pressure.
313. (1.2.16.3.1-4) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
(a) Conventional stuffing box
(b) Double mechanical seal
(c) Rubber bellows mechanical seal
(d) External mechanical seal
314. (1.2.16.3.1-2) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
(a) Copper and carbon.
(b) Copper.
(c) Carbon.
(d) Bronze.
315. (1.2.16.3.1-9) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to _.
(a) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
(c) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
(d) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
316. (1.2.16.2.1-3) A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the
(a) small size of impeller
(b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
(c) lack of moving parts
(d) discharge end being smaller than the suction end
317. (1.2.16.2.1-2) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
(a) compressor
(b) injector
(c) siphon
(d) diffuser
318. (1.2.13.1.2-1) Tubing is sized by _ _.
(a) nominal inside diameter
(b) allowed working pressure
(c) cross-section area
(d) nominal outside diameter
319. (1.2.13.1.2-2) Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?
(a) Type K
(b) Type L
(c) Type M
(d) Type K, L and M have identical wall thicknesses
320. (1.2.13.1.3-6) The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of _ .
(a) admiralty metal
(b) Monel
(c) stellite
(d) a resilient material
321. (1.2.13.1.3-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0047
(a) The valve only requires one turn of the hand wheel to fully open.
(b) The valve seats cannot be replaced or repaired.
(c) The valve is normally used to throttle the flow of liquid.
(d) The valve is a non-rising stem design.
322. (1.2.13.1.3-5) The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring
(a) no back flow
(b) high-pressure drops
(c) close regulation of flow
(d) no pressure drops
323. (1.2.13.1.3-4) The illustrated valve is known as a _ . Illustration GS-0056
(a) lift gate valve
(b) butterfly lift valve
(c) swing check valve
(d) swing globe valve
324. (1.2.13.1.3-2) What type of valve is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0047
(a) Check valve
(b) Butterfly valve
(c) Globe valve
(d) Gate valve
325. (1.2.13.1.1-12) Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or .
(a) union bulkhead fittings
(b) retractable flanges
(c) bends or loops in the line
(d) unions
326. (1.2.13.1.1-5) When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?
(a) Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6).
(b) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the counter-clockwise direction.
(c) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the clockwise direction.
(d) Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order.
327. (1.2.13.1.1-3) To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should _ .
(a) cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact
(b) place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet
(c) make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for proper alignment
(d) remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips
328. (1.2.13.1.1-17) A pipe coupling is a fitting having _ .
(a) outside threads on both ends
(b) inside threads on both ends
(c) a left-hand twist
(d) outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end
329. (1.2.13.1.1-9) Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?
(a) 3/8 inch
(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 5/8 inch
(d) 3/4 inch
330. (1.2.13.1.1-6) If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should .
(a) make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief
(b) check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions
(c) turn the old gasket over and install it again
(d) leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex
331. (1.2.13.1.1-11) The designation 'schedule 80 extra strong' refers to _ .
(a) piping wall thickness
(b) tubing bursting strength
(c) tensile strength of bolts
(d) weight of steel plate
332. (1.2.13.1.1-15) Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called 'pipe _ '.
(a) tees
(b) closures
(c) caps
(d) ells
333. (1.2.13.1.1-7) To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket _.
(a) and let cool slowly in the air
(b) and quench it in oil
(c) and carbonize it
(d) cherry red and quench in water
334. (1.2.13.1.1-14) Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?
(a) Standard, extra-strong, double extra-strong, and schedule 80
(b) Close, short, long, and tank
(c) Cast, wrought, stainless, and brass
(d) Fully threaded, half threaded, long, and short
335. (1.2.13.1.1-10) Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the _.
(a) outside diameter
(b) wall thickness
(c) threaded diameter
(d) inside diameter
336. (1.2.13.1.1-8) Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?
(a) A 3/4" pipe with a standard wall thickness.
(b) A 3/4" pipe with an extra strong wall thickness.
(c) A 3/4" pipe with a double extra strong wall thickness.
(d) All have the same outside diameter.
337. (1.2.13.2.1-1) To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should .
(a) work the reamer side to side to dislodge it
(b) tap the reamer out with a soft faced hammer
(c) turn the tap wrench counter-clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
(d) turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
338. (1.2.13.2.1-4) Before making up a flanged joint, you should .
(a) cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel
(b) be certain that the flanges line up squarely
(c) heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes
(d) have a second spare gasket on hand
339. (1.2.13.2.1-9) A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for .
(a) enlarging existing threads
(b) straightening tapered threads
(c) restoring damaged threads
(d) cutting original threads
340. (1.2.13.2.1-3) The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe .
(a) cutter
(b) ratchet cutter
(c) threader
(d) stock and die
341. (1.2.13.2.1-2) Taps and dies used for threading pipe are .
(a) not hardened
(b) not fluted
(c) straight
(d) tapered
342. (1.2.13.2.1-7) When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should _.
(a) tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips
(b) continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die face
(c) never use a lubricant
(d) start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads
343. (1.2.13.2.1-8) A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly
(a) center drilled
(b) peened
(c) reamed
(d) chamfered
344. (1.2.13.2.1-6) Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dope? Illustration GS-0046
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
345. (1.2.13.2.1-5) Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should _ .
(a) have a first aid kit on hand
(b) determine the size of the gasket
(c) hang a bucket under the joint
(d) be sure no pressure exists in the line
346. (1.2.13.2.2-1) Copper coil tubing is best cut with a .
(a) flare cutter
(b) tubing cutter
(c) pipe cutter
(d) hand hacksaw
347. (1.2.13.2.2-2) The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a
(a) flaring tool
(b) spreader
(c) stretcher
(d) swaging tool
348. (1.2.13.2.2-3) After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should _ .
(a) crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting
(b) flare the tube before removing the burrs
(c) rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file
(d) remove inside burrs with a reamer
349. (1.2.13.2.2-4) Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed .
(a) swaging
(b) flaring
(c) stretching
(d) belling
350. (1.2.5.1.2-5) A shot of anchor chain is equal to _ .
(a) 90 fathoms
(b) one - 15 foot segment
(c) one chain link
(d) one - 90 foot segment
351. (1.2.5.1.2-7) All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted _.
(a) red
(b) orange
(c) white
(d) yellow
352. (1.2.5.1.2-3) What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?
(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) White
353. (1.2.5.1.2-8) All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __.
(a) white
(b) orange
(c) yellow
(d) red
354. (1.2.5.1.2-9) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by _. Illustration GS-0160
(a) D
(b) E
(c) L
(d) M
355. (1.2.5.1.3-1) A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding
(a) half the breaking strength of the mooring line
(b) 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
(c) the full breaking strength of the mooring line
(d) the maximum expected tension of the mooring line
356. (1.2.5.1.3-2) When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is .
(a) opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured
(b) engaged by spring action plus hydraulic pressure
(c) engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
(d) released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating
357. (1.2.5.1.3-3) The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when __ _.
(a) automatic operation of the winch is desired
(b) minimum pull is being exerted by the winch
(c) excessive loads are placed on the winch
(d) wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate
358. (1.2.5.2-2) If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should _ _.
(a) add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid
(b) add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir
(c) add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute
(d) check the winch manufacturer's instruction book
359. (1.2.5.2-3) Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent _.
(a) wear on the braking system
(b) damage to the teeth
(c) over speeding of the motor
(d) overheating of the lube oil
360. (1.2.5.2-4) The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if . Illustration GS-0118
(a) "A" is allowed to remain open
(b) "B" is over-tightened
(c) "H" were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it being replaced
(d) "D" is not kept clean
361. (1.2.5.2-5) If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should .
(a) adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism
(b) engage the motor friction clutch bands
(c) adjust the davit mounted limit switches
(d) remove unnecessary weight from the boat
362. (1.2.5.2-1) The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to _ .
(a) apply a light oil to the bearing housing
(b) replace the bearing with a new one
(c) allow the winch to run at slower speeds only
(d) add grease through the Zerk fitting
363. (1.2.5.3-4) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is the __ _. Illustration GS-0160
(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) relief valve "L" is not closing
(c) replenishing pump coupling is broken
(d) pressure from "E" has failed to bleed off when "J" is placed in the operating position
364. (1.2.5.3-5) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the _. Illustration GS-0160
(a) replenishing pump coupling is broken
(b) relief valve is not opening
(c) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(d) spring set point for "I" is too high
365. (1.2.5.3-6) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the _ . Illustration GS-0160
(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) replenishing pump discharge check valves are continuously open
(c) spring set point "I" is set too high for normal loads
(d) relief valve control shuttle has shifted to the wrong position during windlass operation
366. (1.2.5.3-2) The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate .
(a) the fluid level in the reservoir is too high
(b) clogged suction line fluid filters
(c) air trapped in the system
(d) abrasive matter circulating in the oil
367. (1.2.5.3-1) Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?
(a) The anchor will immediately drop.
(b) The clutch will overheat.
(c) The brake's effectiveness will be reduced.
(d) The driving engine will over speed.
368. (1.2.5.3-3) Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an _.
(a) low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal
(b) low fluid level in the reservoir
(c) high oil level in the sump
(d) overload on the pump motor
1. (2.2.1.1-1) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _ _.
(a) motor overload will open
(b) relief valve will open
(c) motor will overheat
(d) pump will overheat
2. (2.2.1.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
3. (2.2.1.1-3) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used .
(a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
(b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation
(c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
4. (2.2.1.1-4) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
(a) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds
(b) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
(c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
(d) installing a swing check before each bilge valve
5. (2.2.1.1-5) Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly overboard without processing by an oily-water separator?
(a) When the bilge water holding tank is full.
(b) When presented with a flooding emergency.
(c) When operating in international waters beyond the 200 mile limit.
(d) When, by visual inspection, the bilges appear to be free of oil.
6. (2.2.1.1-6) What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?
(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(c) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
7. (2.2.1.1-7) What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?
(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(c) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
8. (2.2.1.1-8) Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal pump under manual supervision?
(a) Shaft alley bilges
(b) Machinery space bilges
(c) Engine room bilges
(d) Dry cargo-hold bilges
9. (2.2.1.2-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the No.6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration GS-0139
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.
(b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
(c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
(d) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.
10. (2.2.1.2-2) Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
(a) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(c) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(d) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
11. (2.2.1.2-3) Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
(a) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(c) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(d) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
12. (2.2.1.2-4) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the fore peak and after peak tanks?
(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel.
(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
(c) Correcting a list condition on the vessel.
(d) Correcting a condition of hogging or sagging of the vessel.
13. (2.2.1.2-5) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the double bottom ballast tanks?
(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list.
(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
(c) Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel.
(d) Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel.
14. (2.2.1.2-6) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "ballasting"?
(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading cargo.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of list.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of hogging or sagging.
15. (2.2.1.2-7) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "deballasting"?
(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of hogging or sagging.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading cargo.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of list.
16. (2.2.1.2-8) With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term "segregated" ballast?
(a) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from engine room bilge systems.
(b) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from cargo or fuel oil systems.
(c) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems.
(d) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from clean bilge systems.
17. (2.2.1.2-9) Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management regulations?
(a) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(b) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(c) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(d) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
18. (2.2.1.2-10) What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?
(a) Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters.
(b) Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters.
(c) Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters.
(d) Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters.
19. (2.2.2.1-1) After coolers are used with air compressors to .
(a) dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air
(b) ensure complete expansion of the compressed air
(c) decrease the density of compressed air
(d) reduce the temperature of compressed air
20. (2.2.2.1-2) The device shown in the illustration is used to _ . Illustration GS-0029
(a) reduce the pressure in the ship's service air system
(b) maintain correct tension on the drive belts while the compressor is in operation
(c) grind sewage prior to entering the sewage treatment plant
(d) unload the cylinders of an air compressor
21. (2.2.2.1-3) If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading system will _ .
(a) still function normally at start-up
(b) still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor
(c) fail to function as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no difficulty
(d) fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be overloaded
22. (2.2.2.1-4) Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the .
(a) first-stage unloader
(b) intercooler relief valve
(c) last-stage unloader
(d) after cooler relief valve
23. (2.2.2.1-5) The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be _ _.
(a) at or below the dew point
(b) superheated
(c) super cooled
(d) all of the above
24. (2.2.2.1-6) Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on modern low-pressure air compressors?
(a) Sliding
(b) Rotary
(c) Reed
(d) Poppet
25. (2.2.2.1-7) In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low-pressure air compressors?
(a) Barrel
(b) Valve-in-head
(c) Trunk
(d) Differential
26. (2.2.2.1-8) Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's service diesel-generator on a motor ship?
(a) Ship's service air compressor
(b) Starting air compressor
(c) Topping air compressor
(d) Emergency air compressor
27. (2.2.2.1-9) Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100 psig?
(a) Starting air compressor
(b) Topping air compressor
(c) Emergency air compressor
(d) Ship's service air compressor
28. (2.2.2.1-10) If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement concerning operation is true?
(a) In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(b) In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
(c) In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(d) In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
29. (2.2.2.2-1) If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should
(a) check for a defective high-pressure cut-out switch
(b) check the air filter
(c) check the operation of the unloaders
(d) check for a receiver outlet valve which may be partially closed
30. (2.2.2.2-2) If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should _ .
(a) replace that belt only
(b) adjust belt tension
(c) dress the worn belt
(d) replace all of the belts
31. (2.2.2.2-3) The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to _ .
(a) allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up
(b) reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft
(c) prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft
(d) allow for crank web deflection
32. (2.2.2.2-4) After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use .
(a) gasoline
(b) diesel oil
(c) naphtha
(d) ammonia
33. (2.2.2.2-5) How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and emulsions?
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Monthly
(d) Quarterly
34. (2.2.2.2-6) When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under what conditions should the oil level be checked?
(a) With the compressor running at speed and unloaded.
(b) With the compressor running at speed and loaded.
(c) With the compressor in the auto mode and currently not running.
(d) With the compressor in the off mode incapable of starting.
35. (2.2.2.2-7) As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned, what statement is true?
(a) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter.
(b) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter.
(c) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter.
(d) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter.
36. (2.2.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.
(a) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
(b) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
(c) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air flow.
(d) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air flow.
37. (2.2.2.2-9) Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?
(a) The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level.
(b) The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl.
(c) The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle.
(d) The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture.
38. (2.2.2.2-10) In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated with moisture?
(a) The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated.
(b) Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating.
(c) The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling.
(d) The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower.
39. (2.2.2.3-3) Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused by .
(a) leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder
(b) leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder
(c) low ambient air pressure
(d) insufficient intercooler cooling
40. (2.2.2.3-1) A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low-pressure reciprocating air compressor will _ _.
(a) prevent the valve from wire drawing
(b) provide quieter valve operation
(c) retard the opening and closing of the valve
(d) have no effect on compressor operation
41. (2.2.2.3-2) Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause .
(a) a clogged air intake
(b) carbon deposits on valves and pistons
(c) excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners
(d) excessive compressor discharge pressure
42. (2.2.2.3-4) Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve?
(a) Carbon build-up in the piston ring belt.
(b) Lifting of intercooler relief valve.
(c) Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity.
(d) Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader.
43. (2.2.2.3-5) In a low-pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from
(a) heating of the air leaving the cylinders
(b) constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume
(c) adiabatic compression in the intercooler
(d) inaccurate valve timing
44. (2.2.2.3-6) Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?
(a) Excessive drive belt tension.
(b) Insufficient drive belt tension.
(c) Excessive internal running clearances.
(d) Clogged air intake filter.
45. (2.2.2.3-7) If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design parameters, what would be the effect?
(a) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
(b) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(c) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(d) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
46. (2.2.2.3-8) If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?
(a) Insufficiently tensioned drive belts.
(b) Misalignment between the compressor and its driver.
(c) Improperly lubricated bearings.
(d) Excessively tensioned drive belts.
47. (2.2.2.3-9) If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?
(a) The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between operating cycles.
(b) The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between operating cycles.
(c) The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between operating cycles.
(d) The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between operating cycles.
48. (2.2.2.3-10) What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating compressor cylinder valves?
(a) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(b) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(c) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(d) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
49. (2.2.3.2-12) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095
(a) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these as digital signals for transmission to digital actuators.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to analog actuators.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to digital actuators.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these as analog signals for transmission to analog actuators.
50. (2.2.3.2-9) Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?
(a) Optical tachometer
(b) Brush-type DC tachometer
(c) Brushless DC tachometer
(d) AC tachometer
51. (2.2.3.2-2) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?
(a) Thermistor probe
(b) Radiation pyrometer
(c) Resistance temperature detector
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer
52. (2.2.3.2-4) What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses two-point control?
(a) Integral control
(b) Derivative control
(c) Proportional control
(d) On-off control
53. (2.2.3.2-10) Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level in a pressure vessel, such as a water-tube boiler steam drum?
(a) Capacitance probe
(b) Differential pressure sensor
(c) Static pressure sensor
(d) Displacement float level sensor
54. (2.2.3.2-11) Which of the following illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for a low level analog signal cable? Illustration EL-0124
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
55. (2.2.3.2-8) What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?
(a) Bellows pressure sensor
(b) Diaphragm pressure sensor
(c) Bourdon tube pressure sensor
(d) Strain gage pressure sensor
56. (2.2.3.2-13) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage sensing unit? Illustration EL-0066
(a) The voltage sensor delivers an AC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(b) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of DC signal voltage proportional to the alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(c) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of single phase AC signal voltage proportional to the alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(d) The voltage sensor delivers a DC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output voltage to the comparator.
57. (2.2.3.2-7) In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function of the error detector within the controller?
(a) The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point).
(b) The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point).
(c) The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point).
(d) The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point).
58. (2.2.3.2-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?
(a) Gain
(b) Feedback
(c) Instability
(d) Dead band
59. (2.2.3.2-3) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?
(a) Thermistor probe
(b) Resistance temperature detector
(c) Radiation pyrometer
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer
60. (2.2.3.2-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?
(a) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction as the error displacement.
(b) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction as the error displacement.
(c) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction as the error displacement.
(d) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction as the error displacement.
61. (2.2.3.1-13) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system workstations? Illustration EL-0096
(a) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending on system configuration and need.
(b) The ROS located in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS.
(c) The ROS located in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS.
(d) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical.
62. (2.2.3.1-1) Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control?
(a) Pneumatic
(b) Digital
(c) Electric/electronic
(d) Direct connected
63. (2.2.3.1-4) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog signals for a measured variable? Illustration EL-0094
(a) 1 volt to 5 volts
(b) -10 volts to +10 volts
(c) 4 milliamps to 20 milliamps
(d) 10 milliamps to 50 milliamps
64. (2.2.3.1-3) As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"? Illustration EL-0094
(a) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number of analog sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to digital values for processing by the CPU.
(b) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number of analog sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to digital values for processing by the CPU.
(c) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number of digital sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to analog values for processing by the CPU.
(d) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number of digital sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to analog values for processing by the CPU.
65. (2.2.3.1-8) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT" represent? Illustration EL-0095
(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals for CPU processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals for CPU processing.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals for CPU processing.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals for CPU processing.
66. (2.2.3.1-9) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the area networks? Illustration EL-0096
(a) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.
(b) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network, with both networks being interconnected.
(c) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network, with both networks being interconnected.
(d) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.
67. (2.2.3.1-11) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"? Illustration EL- 0096
(a) These are control area networks providing supply and return pathways for communication.
(b) These are control area networks providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite a bus failure.
(c) These are communication access nodes providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite a node failure.
(d) These are communication access nodes providing supply and return pathways for communication.
68. (2.2.3.1-7) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG A/D" represent? Illustration EL-0095
(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals for CPU processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals for CPU processing.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals for CPU processing.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals for CPU processing.
69. (2.2.3.1-2) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with respect to closed-loop control processes? Illustration EL-0094
(a) The computer normally has no role in the various closed-loop control processes. It is only used for backup control purposes.
(b) The computer has no role in the various closed-loop control processes regardless of the control mode.
(c) The computer provides the set point input data to the analog controllers, but the analog controllers actually control the closed-loop processes.
(d) The computer provides the set point input data to the process control loop, as well as the measured variable data. The analog controllers are only used for manual backup control.
70. (2.2.3.1-5) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095
(a) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators.
(b) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators.
71. (2.2.4.2-5) A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __.
(a) water in the bearing
(b) dirt in the bearing
(c) vibration while the bearing is not in operation
(d) abrasives in the lubricant
72. (2.2.4.2-8) A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?
(a) Heating the bearing in an oil-bath bearing heater.
(b) Cooling the bearing with dry ice.
(c) Cooling the shaft with liquid refrigerant.
(d) Heating the bearing with an oxyacetylene torch.
73. (2.2.4.2-1) After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should
(a) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in the bearing
(b) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while
(c) save the used grease for chemical analysis
(d) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape
74. (2.2.4.2-4) A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?
(a) Less than 1/4
(b) 1/3 to 1/2
(c) 1/2 to 3/4
(d) More than 3/4
75. (2.2.4.2-10) What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?
(a) The bearing temperature would tend to produce unusual vibrations.
(b) The bearing temperature would tend to run cooler than normal for the load.
(c) The bearing would tend to produce a noticeable change in sound.
(d) The bearing temperature would tend to run hotter than normal for the load.
76. (2.2.4.2-9) Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?
(a) Discoloration of the races or rolling elements.
(b) The presence of metallic particles in the lubricant.
(c) The presence of small cracks in the rolling elements.
(d) The presence of small cracks in the races.
77. (2.2.4.2-11) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true?
(a) The outer race should be free to turn its housing.
(b) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(c) They are usually pressed on to their shafts.
(d) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.
78. (2.2.4.2-6) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
(a) the shaft
(b) the inner race
(c) the outer race
(d) the housing
79. (2.2.4.2-7) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
(a) the shaft
(b) the housing
(c) the inner race
(d) the outer race
80. (2.2.4.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
(a) a pressure gun
(b) a Zerk fitting
(c) spring force
(d) gravity flow
81. (2.2.4.1-3) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?
(a) Roller
(b) Tapered roller
(c) Needle
(d) Ball
82. (2.2.4.1-5) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by a radial load?
(a) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
(b) A radial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(c) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) A radial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.
83. (2.2.4.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __.
(a) inner race cone width
(b) outer ring width
(c) manufacturer's numerical code
(d) rolling member size
84. (2.2.4.1-8) Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?
(a) a sleeve bearing
(b) a plain bearing
(c) a ball bearing
(d) a journal bearing
85. (2.2.4.1-7) Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational speed?
(a) First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(b) First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
(c) First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(d) First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
86. (2.2.4.1-6) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by an axial load?
(a) An axial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(b) An axial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.
(c) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
87. (2.2.5.4.1-9) In order for a reverse osmosis fresh water generator to be able to overcome the osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator?
(a) Suction side of the high-pressure pump.
(b) Discharge side of the high-pressure pump.
(c) Fresh water outlet from the membrane modules.
(d) Brine outlet from the membrane modules.
88. (2.2.5.4.1-3) Regarding a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true?
(a) Modules may be piped in series to increase the fresh water throughput.
(b) Modules may be piped in series to increase the fresh water purity.
(c) Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the fresh water purity.
(d) Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.
89. (2.2.5.4.1-10) To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse osmosis fresh water generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?
(a) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
(b) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the fresh water leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various fresh water storage tanks.
(c) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from becoming resident in the reverse osmosis unit filters and membrane modules.
(d) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the fresh water leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various fresh water storage tanks.
90. (2.2.5.3.3-4) If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to .
(a) priming in the second stage
(b) an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage
(c) loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages
(d) failure of the brine pump
91. (2.2.5.3.3-1) A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of _ _. Illustration GS-0053
(a) a tube leak in item 'IV', which contributes to a surging absolute pressure in "III"
(b) carryover from "III"
(c) a faulty cell at location "6" and a tube leak in item "I"
(d) erosion of item "3" or the valve opened too wide if used
92. (2.2.5.3.3-2) Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the _ .
(a) flash chamber walls
(b) tubes of the distiller condenser
(c) tubes of the salt water feed heater
(d) tubes of the air ejector condenser
93. (2.2.5.3.3-7) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect .
(a) improper vacuum
(b) a clogged desuperheater water strainer
(c) a malfunctioning brine pump
(d) a leak in the feed water heater
94. (2.2.5.3.3-8) While standing watch in the engine room, you notice a high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator. This would indicate
(a) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
(b) chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
(c) leakage at the second-stage condenser
(d) carryover in the first-stage
95. (2.2.5.3.3-6) Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be a result of _.
(a) carrying the brine level below normal
(b) reduced feed water heater temperatures
(c) leaks in the demister baffles
(d) operating at reduced vacuum conditions
96. (2.2.5.3.1-3) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator are removed by the _.
(a) condensers
(b) demisters
(c) splash baffles
(d) spray pipes
97. (2.2.5.3.1-1) A vacuum is initially created in a flash-type distilling plant by .
(a) the flashing of the feed water
(b) air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump
(c) the condensation of the salt water feed
(d) condensation of the distillate
98. (2.2.5.3.1-8) The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is .
(a) slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet
(b) slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction
(c) slightly lower than the first stage vacuum
(d) slightly higher than the second stage vacuum
99. (2.2.5.3.1-11) In the unit illustrated, the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165F or greater and must exist at this temperature when leaving _ _. Illustration GS-0053
(a) I
(b) III
(c) IV
(d) V
100. (2.2.5.3.1-5) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the .
(a) throughput of the brine overboard pump
(b) steam flow rate to the air ejectors
(c) float controlled level of the feed heater
(d) capacity of the distillate pump
101. (2.2.5.3.1-4) In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction?
(a) Feed water heater drain pump
(b) Distillate pump
(c) Air ejector condenser drain pump
(d) Condenser circulating water pump
102. (2.2.5.2.2.2-3) In a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle?
(a) The chemical composition of the jacket water coolant additive package.
(b) The sea water inlet temperature to the evaporator section.
(c) The salt content of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section.
(d) The jacket water inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle.
103. (2.2.5.2.2.2-9) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
(b) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
(c) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.
(d) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.
104. (2.2.5.2.2.2-8) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects.
(b) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low-pressure contacts.
(c) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output.
(d) Jacket water would be automatically bypassed around the distiller.
105. (2.2.5.2.2.2-1) When securing a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of time, you should .
(a) fill the unit with salt water
(b) fill the unit with descaling compound
(c) completely drain the unit
(d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air
106. (2.2.5.2.1.1-7) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It provides a conduit for incoming feed water.
(b) It aids in removing condenser tube bundles.
(c) It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell.
(d) It is only used as a lifting beam during installation.
107. (2.2.5.2.1.1-17) The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is . Illustration MO-0110
(a) directly connected to the feed water supply line
(b) attached to the outlet of the brine ejector
(c) directly connected to the jacket water supply line
(d) attached to the air ejector
108. (2.2.5.2.1.1-5) What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Jacket water is heated in the boiling chamber.
(b) The feed water enters the device and vaporizes under vacuum conditions.
(c) The feed water is cooled prior to being pumped into section "F".
(d) Scale accumulates at position "E".
109. (2.2.5.2.1.1-4) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.
(b) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
(c) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
(d) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are removed.
110. (2.2.5.2.1.1-2) What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It serves to boil off incoming feed water.
(b) It condenses the vapors formed in section "G".
(c) It removes sensible heat from the jacket water.
(d) It serves to cool incoming feed water.
111. (2.2.5.2.1.1-8) For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Main engine jacket water.
(b) The salt water feed.
(c) The sea water used for condensing the water vapor.
(d) The distillate discharge.
112. (2.2.5.2.1.1-19) The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are produced from which of the listed materials? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Titanium
(b) Copper
(c) Anodized aluminum
(d) Phosphor bronze
113. (2.2.5.2.1.1-13) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It supplies feed water to evaporator.
(b) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine.
(c) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate.
(d) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases.
114. (2.2.5.4.2-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?
(a) A lower than normal feed pressure.
(b) An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(c) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(d) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.
115. (2.2.5.2.1.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Torque wrench
(b) Pneumatic impact wrench
(c) Steel ruler or tape measure
(d) Cantilever wrench
116. (2.2.5.2.1.2-5) Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may be the result of . Illustration MO-0110
(a) improper operation of the brine pump
(b) neglecting to close the vent shell
(c) improper operation of the distillate pump
(d) neglecting to latch the dump valve
117. (2.2.5.2.1.2-4) Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage in the illustrated device? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Improper venting during start-up.
(b) Improper venting during operation.
(c) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger.
(d) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger.
118. (2.2.5.2.1.2-3) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110
(a) The vacuum of the device will increase.
(b) Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output.
(c) The temperature of the device will decrease.
(d) There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell.
119. (2.2.5.1-2) The primary reason low-pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high-pressure evaporators is _.
(a) due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed
(b) due to the latent heat of evaporation principle
(c) evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate
(d) evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum
120. (2.2.5.1-10) In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?
(a) Reverse osmosis unit
(b) Submerged tube unit
(c) Titanium plate unit
(d) Flash type unit
121. (2.2.5.1-9) With regard to fresh water generators, what statement concerning brine is true?
(a) Brine is the cooling medium used for chill-shocking as a means for scale removal.
(b) Brine is the unevaporated sea water of a fresh water generator as the result of distillation.
(c) Brine is the cooling medium used for cooling the distillate before distribution.
(d) Brine is the incoming sea water feed to the fresh water generator and destined for distillation.
122. (2.2.5.1-3) In the production of fresh water from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called _ .
(a) dehydration
(b) condensation
(c) distillation
(d) evaporation
123. (2.2.5.1-5) Which of the following fresh water generators has an operating principle that evaporates pre-heated sea water by causing it to undergo a pressure drop into a vacuum?
(a) Submerged tube unit
(b) Flash type unit
(c) Titanium plate unit
(d) Reverse osmosis unit
124. (2.2.5.3.2-2) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the _ _ _.
(a) salt water feed heater
(b) second stage vapor separator
(c) distillate cooler
(d) second stage feed heater
125. (2.2.5.3.2-9) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued presence of scale?
(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.
126. (2.2.5.3.2-4) When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should
(a) completely drain the unit
(b) fill the unit with descaling compound
(c) fill the unit with salt water
(d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air
127. (2.2.5.3.2-10) When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?
(a) Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity.
(b) Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain distillate production capacity.
(c) During regularly scheduled maintenance.
(d) Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal.
128. (2.2.5.3.2-7) What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?
(a) Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
(b) Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
(c) Chemically treating the incoming feed water.
(d) Chemically treating the outgoing brine.
129. (2.2.5.3.2-8) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of the scale?
(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.
130. (2.2.5.2.2.1-19) Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to . Illustration MO-0111
(a) direct the flow from the distillate pump
(b) regulate flow from the drain pump
(c) prevent damage to device "9" by reducing turbulence
(d) cancel the effects of improper regulation developed by device "11"
131. (2.2.5.2.2.1-10) Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller? Illustration MO-0111
(a) "12"
(b) "13"
(c) "19"
(d) "26"
132. (2.2.5.2.2.1-11) Where is the latent heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the illustrated distiller? Illustration MO-0111
(a) During its contact period with heat exchanger "3".
(b) Only as it passes through device "20".
(c) From having passed through "23".
(d) While it is in contact with device "24".
133. (2.2.5.2.2.1-12) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation by . Illustration MO-0111
(a) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing excess brine accumulation
(b) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"
(c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
(d) the continuous action of ejector "22"
134. (2.2.5.2.2.1-7) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111
(a) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
(b) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
(c) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7", while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".
(d) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of flooding.
135. (2.2.5.2.2.1-18) Which of the following statements describes what will occur to the volume of water vapor as it is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The latent heat of condensation is removed causing the volume to increase.
(b) The volume is increased as condensation occurs at the tube surfaces.
(c) The volume is greatly reduced, contributing to condensation within the condenser.
(d) The volume will increase if the valve labeled "J" is opened excessively, resulting in an increase of the distiller absolute pressure.
136. (2.2.5.2.2.1-1) What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
(a) It provides a low-pressure point for combustion air filtration.
(b) It relieves the excessive pressure developed in the jacket water cooler.
(c) It aids in the removal of combustible gases formed in the crankcase.
(d) It provides a low-pressure point for adding chemicals into the jacket water system.
137. (2.2.6-8) Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose of such an arrangement?
(a) Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated primary heat source, whether in port or underway.
(b) Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway.
(c) Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port or underway.
(d) Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway.
138. (2.2.6-1) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?
(a) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
(c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
(d) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
139. (2.2.6-2) What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant in the potable water?
(a) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
(b) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
(c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
(d) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
140. (2.2.6-3) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system?
(a) Titanium plate type unit
(b) Multi-stage flash type unit
(c) Submerged tube type unit
(d) Reverse osmosis type unit
141. (2.2.6-4) Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true?
(a) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the potable water storage tanks.
(b) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the potable water storage tanks.
(c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the potable water storage tanks.
(d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the potable water storage tanks.
142. (2.2.6-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?
(a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level switches in response to system demand changes.
(b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero demand for potable water.
(c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of zero demand for potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro-pneumatic tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.
143. (2.2.6-6) What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water pumps supporting a typical potable water system?
(a) Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high.
(b) Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low demand and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high.
(c) Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high.
(d) Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system demand changes.
144. (2.2.6-7) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system?
(a) Use of hot water recirculation loops.
(b) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.
(c) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.
(d) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.
145. (2.2.6-9) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro- pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?
(a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
(b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.
146. (2.2.6-10) Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump?
(a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
147. (2.2.7-10) What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
(a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing temporary speed droop.
(b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing permanent speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing temporary speed droop.
(d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing permanent speed droop.
148. (2.2.7-5) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting?
(a) Dead band
(b) Stability
(c) Promptness
(d) Sensitivity
149. (2.2.7-9) What is meant by the term "dead band" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
(a) Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under-control by the governor and a lack of governor power.
(b) Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as the result of a load change.
(c) Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over-control by the governor.
(d) Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds to load changes.
150. (2.2.7-4) Concerning governor speed droop, what statement is true?
(a) If speed droop is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of loading.
(b) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of loading.
(c) If speed droop is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load changes.
(d) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the load.
151. (2.2.7-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?
(a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a constant pump discharge pressure.
(c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct reversible propulsion drive driving through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with maintaining a constant system frequency.
152. (2.2.7-7) Which term represents how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective action as the result of a load change?
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Power
(c) Promptness
(d) Dead band
153. (2.2.7-2) Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in percent?
(a) 10.0%
(b) 11.1%
(c) 88.9%
(d) 90.0%
154. (2.2.7-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
(a) Over speed governor
(b) Speed-limiting governor
(c) Over speed trip
(d) Under speed trip
155. (2.2.7-6) Which term represents the change in speed required before a speed control governor will initiate corrective action as the load changes?
(a) Promptness
(b) Power
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Dead band
156. (2.2.9.11-2) If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger, the fan should .
(a) be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation
(b) come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
(c) be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190F (87.8C)
(d) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90F (32.2C)
157. (2.2.9.11-3) In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary?
(a) Hatch cover system
(b) Watertight door system
(c) Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
(d) Constant tension mooring winch system
158. (2.2.9.11-1) In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon .
(a) the temperature of the hydraulic fluid
(b) the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
(c) the temperature of the cooling water
(d) all of the above
159. (2.2.9.13-3) Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by _ _ _.
(a) insufficient external pump slippage
(b) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers
(c) fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(d) continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve
160. (2.2.9.13-7) While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure?
(a) Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.
(b) Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.
(c) Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact.
(d) Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.
161. (2.2.9.13-6) You press start button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the motor does not start. The first thing you should check is the _ _. Illustration GS-0161
(a) controller circuit breaker
(b) controller contactor operating coil
(c) pump discharge relief valve setting is too low
(d) suction strainer condition
162. (2.2.9.13-2) Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of _.
(a) a high oil level
(b) changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(c) continued slow recirculation of the oil
(d) incorrect fluid viscosity
163. (2.2.9.13-5) If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be
(a) an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir
(b) due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor
(c) low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid
(d) an oil leak across the pump shaft packing
164. (2.2.9.6-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a .
(a) bleed-off circuit
(b) metered-in circuit
(c) bleed-in circuit
(d) metered-out circuit
165. (2.2.9.6-1) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a .
(a) metered-out circuit
(b) metered-in circuit
(c) bleed-in circuit
(d) bleed-off circuit
166. (2.2.9.1-4) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
(a) reservoir expansion chamber
(b) atmosphere as heat
(c) hydraulic piping flexibility
(d) fluid as friction
167. (2.2.9.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?
(a) Vacuum
(b) Pressure
(c) Cloud point
(d) Pour point
168. (2.2.9.1-2) With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid _ .
(a) increases
(b) contracts
(c) remains constant if pressure decreases
(d) remains the same
169. (2.2.9.1-1) The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming _.
(a) the load applied to the system
(b) resistance of the internal components
(c) internal resistance to flow
(d) all of the above
170. (2.2.9.9-2) For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
(a) To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting without lifting the relief valve.
(b) To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects.
(c) To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
(d) All of the above.
171. (2.2.9.9-3) Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic ram is correct?
(a) Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports.
(b) The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(c) The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(d) Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion.
172. (2.2.9.4-5) In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?
(a) V-ring
(b) U-ring
(c) Quad ring
(d) Cup seal
173. (2.2.9.4-6) Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS- 0041
(a) Filter
(b) Variable displacement pump
(c) Heat exchanger
(d) All of the above
174. (2.2.9.4-1) An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility of _.
(a) spongy actuator movements
(b) aeration of the oil
(c) pump cavitation
(d) contamination of the oil
175. (2.2.9.4-2) An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can .
(a) rupture the pump discharge piping
(b) reduce or stop the output action of the actuator
(c) cause leaking of the flexible line connections
(d) all of the above
176. (2.2.9.4-3) Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to .
(a) prevent solid particles from entering the filter
(b) protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants
(c) protect the directional control valves
(d) prevent solid particles from entering the pump
177. (2.2.9.4-4) The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an _ . Illustration GS-0071
(a) soft-packing seal
(b) quad seal
(c) mechanical seal
(d) spring seal
178. (2.2.9.10-1) The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the .
(a) ram
(b) pump
(c) accumulator
(d) piping
179. (2.2.9.10-2) Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?
(a) Accumulator
(b) Modulator
(c) Pressure compensator valve
(d) Sump actuator
180. (2.2.9.10-5) A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is to _ .
(a) eliminate pressure surges in the system
(b) maintain the stored oil under pressure
(c) act as a shock absorber
(d) act as a base or foundation for the power unit
181. (2.2.9.10-3) Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system?
(a) Separate air from the oil
(b) Trap foreign matter
(c) Dissipate heat
(d) All of the above
182. (2.2.9.10-7) A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be potentially dangerous if .
(a) the bladder contacts the top of the poppet
(b) the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil
(c) it is precharged with dry nitrogen
(d) the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure
183. (2.2.9.10-6) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by _ _. Illustration GS-0118
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
184. (2.2.9.10-4) The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to .
(a) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system
(b) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
(c) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
(d) all of the above
185. (2.2.9.7-4) One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic systems is to supply fluid flow to _.
(a) the main system accumulators under all operating conditions
(b) a servo control circuit
(c) position a manually controlled valve
(d) the reservoir
186. (2.2.9.7-3) A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration GS-0040
(a) When part "D" rotates counter-clockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing part "G" to slide towards the set point spring F.
(b) Part "H" will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G" as flow across hydraulic motor decreases.
(c) The increase in high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the variable displacement pump.
(d) As high side pressure increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work together to re-establish the original tilting box angle.
187. (2.2.9.7-1) If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" . Illustration GS-0039
(a) will move to the right, and "C" will move to the left, but lagging behind "B"
(b) will move to the left, and "C" will move to the right, but will lag behind the movement of "A"
(c) will move to the right, as will "C"
(d) will move to the left, as will "C"
188. (2.2.9.7-2) Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control lever, shown in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke? Illustration GS-0039
(a) Although oil will leak past part 'B', the amount of pump stroke will be maintained until the control handle position is changed.
(b) Although the control handle position was set, the pump displacement will fluctuate from zero to maximum flow rate until the handle is placed in its neutral position.
(c) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually move to full stroke.
(d) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually return to neutral stroke.
189. (2.2.9.8-3) Compensated flow control or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to
(a) assure constant fluid temperature
(b) allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system
(c) compensate for major leaks in the system
(d) maintain the original fluid viscosity
190. (2.2.9.8-7) Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional control valve is centered? Illustration GS-0105
(a) Oil pressure to both sides of the actuator will be equal as the pump discharge flow is directed across the relief valve.
(b) A pressure differential will exist between the two ends of the actuator, with pump discharge lower than normal due to flow across the unloading valve.
(c) The oil pressure will equalize at both ends of the actuator and the pump will discharge through the reducing valve to the sump.
(d) The load on the actuator may cause a difference in pressure to exist between the rod and cap end, and oil discharging to the sump across the relief valve with the pump operating.
191. (2.2.9.8-5) Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?
(a) Unloading valve
(b) Sequence valve
(c) Counterbalance valve
(d) Pressure-reducing valve
192. (2.2.9.8-2) The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system is to
(a) prevent oil backflow to the actuators
(b) prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating
(c) restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use
(d) control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing
193. (2.2.9.8-6) Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?
(a) compound, pressure-relief valve
(b) unloading valve
(c) counterbalance valve
(d) sequence valve
194. (2.2.9.8-1) Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as .
(a) two position flow control valves
(b) main supply line throttle valves
(c) variable flow control valves
(d) check and choke valves
195. (2.2.9.5-4) If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the device illustrated the _ _ _. Illustration GS-0058
(a) speed would decrease, horsepower and torque would increase
(b) horsepower, torque, and speed would increase proportionally
(c) horsepower, torque, and speed would decrease proportionally
(d) speed would increase, horsepower and torque would decrease
196. (2.2.9.5-2) The device illustrated would be best used as a _. Illustration GS-0058
(a) power take-off driven lube oil pump
(b) variable capacity pump
(c) hydraulic hatch supply pump
(d) variable or constant speed motor
197. (2.2.9.5-3) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?
(a) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
(b) Provide one additional slot and vane.
(c) Double the casing thickness.
(d) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
198. (2.2.9.5-1) A two-stage hydraulic pump unit is used to .
(a) produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used
(b) supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements were to fail
(c) develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the second pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage
(d) establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system
199. (2.2.9.5-5) Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative positions of the _ .
(a) pump shaft and central valve
(b) floating ring and cylinder body
(c) floating ring and pump shaft
(d) pump shaft and horizontal ports
200. (2.2.9.3-4) The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably leak when in operation because the tubing _ _. Illustration GS-0065
(a) will contract in diameter and expand in length under pressure
(b) will stretch and overstress the male threads on the fitting
(c) and its fittings cannot be properly installed and tightened
(d) cannot flex at right angles to the pressure applied by the fluid because it is not properly twisted
201. (2.2.9.3-5) A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __ _.
(a) shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when tightening
(b) replace both the tubing sections and the fitting
(c) keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
(d) stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut
202. (2.2.9.3-1) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure . Illustration GS-0100
(a) A or C
(b) A or B
(c) B or C
(d) C or D
203. (2.2.9.3-3) The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the
(a) Teflon sleeve
(b) braided layer
(c) synthetic rubber inner tube
(d) external cover
204. (2.2.9.3-2) For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less .
(a) the wall thickness
(b) 1.5 times the wall thickness
(c) 2 times the wall thickness
(d) 2.5 times the wall thickness
205. (2.2.9.12-4) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil .
(a) viscosity will increase
(b) viscosity will decrease
(c) volume will increase
(d) floc point will increase
206. (2.2.9.12-2) To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator .
(a) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's design pressure
(b) increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure
(c) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator preload pressure
(d) allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached
207. (2.2.9.12-7) When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the piping always indicates the .
(a) actual inside diameter
(b) actual outside diameter
(c) wall thickness
(d) size for threaded connections
208. (2.2.9.12-5) Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when .
(a) the system has been idle for a long period of time
(b) adding small amounts of oil to the system
(c) the system has been overheated
(d) the system has been drained and then filled with new oil
209. (2.2.9.12-6) New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using .
(a) alcohol
(b) carbon tetrachloride
(c) a water-based detergent
(d) a special petroleum solvent
210. (2.2.9.2-3) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __. Illustration GS-0103
(a) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
(b) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed
(c) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
(d) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed
211. (2.2.9.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an _ . Illustration GS-0097
(a) combined pump unit
(b) series-flow pump unit
(c) double pump unit
(d) two-stage pump unit
212. (2.2.9.2-4) Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as . Illustration GS-0103
(a) one of two motor driven remotely operated pumps to open and close the watertight door
(b) the manually operated pump located in a common passage way to close the watertight door in an emergency
(c) the manually operated pump used to open or close the watertight door from the engine room side
(d) motor driven pump used to close the watertight door from the navigation bridge in an emergency
213. (2.2.9.2-2) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component _ _. Illustration GS-0068
(a) is pilot controlled
(b) allows flow in one direction only
(c) is pressure compensated
(d) can be adjusted or varied
214. (2.2.11.1-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its _ _ _.
(a) elasticity
(b) ductility
(c) fusibility
(d) malleability
215. (2.2.11.1-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as .
(a) case hardening
(b) low temperature hardening
(c) annealing
(d) tempering
216. (2.2.11.1-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?
(a) decrease in brittleness
(b) increase in hardening
(c) increase in brittleness
(d) increase in corrosion resistance
217. (2.2.11.1-4) When metal is tempered, it becomes .
(a) less brittle
(b) more brittle
(c) less tough
(d) harder
218. (2.2.11.1-5) What is the purpose of heat treating steel?
(a) Develop ductility
(b) Improve machining qualities
(c) Relieve stresses
(d) All of the above
219. (2.2.11.1-6) Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of .
(a) nickel and copper
(b) zinc and copper
(c) bronze and tin
(d) copper and tin
220. (2.2.11.1-7) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated above its critical temperature?
(a) The metal changes from the solid state to the molten state.
(b) The metal changes from a molten state to a vapor state.
(c) The metal undergoes a change in crystalline structure.
(d) The metal undergoes thermal contraction.
221. (2.2.11.1-8) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?
(a) Change in chemical composition
(b) Softened condition
(c) High tensile strength
(d) Induction of toughness
222. (2.2.11.1-9) When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?
(a) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
(b) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in cold water.
(c) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is allowed to cool slowly in air.
(d) After the steel is heated above its melting temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
223. (2.2.11.1-10) What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on welding a joint?
(a) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(b) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(c) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
(d) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
224. (2.2.11.1-11) What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?
(a) The ability to resist shearing stresses.
(b) The ability to resist bending stresses.
(c) The ability to resist compression stresses.
(d) The ability to resist stretching stresses.
225. (2.2.11.1-12) What is meant by the term toughness as it applies to a material?
(a) The ability to resist penetration.
(b) The ability to resist repeated application and release of force.
(c) The ability to resist continuous tension.
(d) The ability to resist continuous compression.
226. (2.2.12.3-10) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface detection probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the separation processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the recirculation mode while in the separation processing mode.
(c) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to initiating the oil discharge mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin processing bilge water.
227. (2.2.12.3-2) If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is _ . Illustration GS-0153
(a) in the oil discharge mode
(b) processing the bilge water
(c) damaged and should not be used
(d) not turned on
228. (2.2.12.3-9) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the upper oil/water interface detection probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the separation processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin processing bilge water.
(c) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the recirculation mode while in the separation processing mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to initiating the oil discharge mode.
229. (2.2.12.1-4) What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?
(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.
(b) Marine diesel oil.
(c) Distillate/residual fuel oil blends.
(d) Light distillate oil.
230. (2.2.12.1-7) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily- water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?
(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
231. (2.2.12.1-9) A typical oily-water separator has three stages of separation. Which statement represents the correct sequential order of the stages?
(a) First stage: polishing filter coalescer. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage: gravimetric.
(b) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage: inclined plate coalescer.
(c) First stage: inclined plate coalescer. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage: gravimetric.
(d) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage: polishing filter coalescer.
232. (2.2.12.1-1) What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?
(a) Remove small amounts of water from large amounts of oil.
(b) Remove small amounts of water from small amounts of oil.
(c) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
(d) Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.
233. (2.2.12.1-6) In order to facilitate separation of oil from an oily-water mixture in an oily-water separator, what statement is true concerning the flow pattern of the oily-water?
(a) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(b) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(c) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and low in turbulence.
(d) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and low in turbulence.
234. (2.2.12.1-5) What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?
(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.
(b) Diesel engine lubricating oil.
(c) Marine diesel oil.
(d) Steam turbine lubricating oil.
235. (2.2.12.1-2) What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity associated with an oily-water separator?
(a) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will tend to rise.
(b) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will tend to sink.
(c) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will tend to rise.
(d) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will tend to sink.
236. (2.2.12.1-8) If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what statement concerning the plate pack is true?
(a) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(b) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(c) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(d) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
237. (2.2.12.2-9) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is open. Valve "D" is closed. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unit? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
238. (2.2.12.2-8) The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-0175
(a) waste oil outlet line
(b) processed water outlet line
(c) clean water inlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line
239. (2.2.12.2-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while operating in the processing mode? Illustration GS-0153
(a) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the processed liquid through valve "14".
(b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve "14".
(c) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as processed liquid.
(d) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through valve "4".
240. (2.2.12.1-5) The component labeled "A" as shown in the illustration would be identified as the
. Illustration GS-0175
(a) oil content monitor probe
(b) separator vessel pressure relief valve
(c) oil/water interface level sensing probe
(d) separator vessel vacuum breaker
241. (2.2.12.2-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the
. Illustration GS-0175
(a) processed water outlet line
(b) clean water inlet line
(c) waste oil outlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line
242. (2.2.12.2-10) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unit? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
243. (2.2.12.2-1) The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the _ _. Illustration GS-0153
(a) first stage oil separator and drip pan
(b) inlet weir and inlet baffle
(c) second stage oil separator and drip pan
(d) outlet weir and outlet baffle
244. (2.2.12.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to _ . Illustration GS- 0153
(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
(d) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
245. (2.2.12.2-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-0175
(a) processed water outlet line
(b) clean water inlet line
(c) oily bilge water inlet line
(d) waste oil discharge line
246. (2.2.12.2-2) When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153
(a) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
(b) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control valve "14".
(c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
(d) No water level is maintained in the tank.
247. (2.2.13.2-7) How would the pressure setting of the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston- operated steam pressure-reducer be raised to a higher set point? Illustration GS-0044
(a) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
(b) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(c) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(d) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
248. (2.2.13.2-11) How would the illustrated valve respond to a complete loss of charge from the remote bulb-to-control diaphragm power element if the valve is used as a temperature control valve for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater? Illustration GS-0045
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm.
(b) The valve would fail in the fully open position, resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm.
(c) It is not possible to predict how the valve will respond to a complete loss of charge from the power element.
(d) The valve would fail in the exact position it was in before the power element lost its complete charge, resulting in a fluctuation in fuel oil temperature as demand changes.
249. (2.2.13.2-1) In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure- reducing valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves? Illustration GS-0044
(a) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(b) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
(c) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(d) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
250. (2.2.13.2-9) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater for a steam boiler. If there was a decrease in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respond? Illustration GS-0045
(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.
251. (2.2.13.2-10) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater for a steam boiler. If there was an increase in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respond? Illustration GS-0045
(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.
252. (2.2.13.3-8) As it pertains to safety valves, what is the definition of blow down?
(a) Blow down is the feature of a valve that allows drainage of condensate away from the disc to prevent sticking.
(b) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve popping pressure.
(c) Blow down is the difference between the valve popping pressure and the valve reseating pressure.
(d) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve reseating pressure.
253. (2.2.13.3-10) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement concerning the blow down adjusting ring (B) is true? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(c) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(d) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
254. (2.2.13.3-3) Concerning safety valves, what statement is true?
(a) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and only reseat when the pressure has dropped significantly.
(b) Safety valves are always set to relieve at a pressure exceeding the maximum allowable working pressure of the system.
(c) Safety valves are designed to throttle and adjust the flow rate to just keep up with the capacity of the pressure source.
(d) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and immediately reseat when the pressure has dropped by a very small amount.
255. (2.2.13.3-7) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the adjustment of the popping pressure? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the release nut (A).
(b) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the adjusting ring (B).
(c) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the compression screw after first loosening the compression screw locking nut (C).
(d) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the seat bushing (G).
256. (2.2.13.3-9) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement concerning the blow down adjusting ring (B) is true? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(c) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(d) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
257. (2.2.13.3-6) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the adjustment of blow down? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the release nut (A).
(b) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the adjusting ring (B).
(c) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the compression screw after first loosening the compression screw locking nut (C).
(d) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the seat bushing (G).
258. (2.2.13.3-5) Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?
(a) Pressure-reducing valve
(b) Pressure-relief valve
(c) Safety valve
(d) Pressure-regulating relief valve
259. (2.2.13.3-4) In the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the disc? Illustration SG-0018
(a) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed pressure acting downward on the disc is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed pressure acting downward on the disc is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed pressure acting upward on the disc is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed pressure acting upward on the disc is a valve opening force.
260. (2.2.13.4-2) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The control valve has a single disc which is upward seating.
(b) The control valve has a single disc which is downward seating.
(c) The control valve has two discs which are both upward seating.
(d) The control valve has two discs which are both downward seating.
261. (2.2.13.4-10) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if the stem packing was over-tightened and the stem was unable to vertically move in either direction? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm condition.
(b) The valve will lose control of the fuel oil temperature with the result that the fuel temperature will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to over-tightened valve stem packing.
262. (2.2.13.4-7) Suppose the pilot controller for the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is supplied with 20 psig control air and is designed to operate the valve with a pilot pressure ranging from 3 to 15 psig. What would be the indication of a properly adjusted spring
(6) by means of the adjusting nut (12)? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The valve should indicate fully open at 3 psig and should indicate fully closed at 15 psig.
(b) The valve should indicate fully closed at 3 psig and should indicate fully open at 15 psig
(c) The valve should indicate fully open at 0 psig and should indicate fully closed at 20 psig.
(d) The valve should indicate fully closed at 0 psig and should indicate fully open at 20 psig.
263. (2.2.13.4-3) Assuming that the flow is from left to right on the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051
(a) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the valve position.
(b) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the valve position.
(c) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve closing.
(d) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve opening.
264. (2.2.13.4-4) In the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragm? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.
265. (2.2.13.4-1) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The control valve is direct-acting and normally open (NO).
(b) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally open (NO).
(c) The control valve is direct-acting and normally closed (NC).
(d) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally closed (NC).
266. (2.2.13.4-8) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if there was a complete loss of pilot air being delivered to the valve actuator? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm condition.
(b) The valve would fail in the exact position just before the loss of pilot air. The fuel temperature will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to a loss of pilot air.
267. (2.2.13.4-6) Suppose the pilot pressure is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for a linear response and the travel position indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would be the approximate pilot pressure if the position indicator showed the valve to be 75% open? Illustration GS-0051
(a) 4.5 psig
(b) 6.0 psig
(c) 7.5 psig
(d) 9.0 psig
268. (2.2.13.1-2) What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?
(a) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(b) By draining the high point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(c) By draining the high point of a vertical run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(d) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to insure good heat transfer efficiency.
269. (2.2.13.1-9) What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into contact with superheated steam?
(a) Mechanical traps relying on the principle of buoyancy.
(b) Thermodynamic traps relying on the principle of condensate undergoing a pressure drop and flashing.
(c) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of differing expansion rates for dissimilar metals.
(d) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of expansion/contraction of a volatile fluid.
270. (2.2.13.1-6) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading the control cylinder "E" upward out of the trap body? Illustration GS-0002
(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.
(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.
(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.
(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.
271. (2.2.13.1-5) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading the control cylinder "E" downward further into the trap body? Illustration GS-0002
(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.
(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.
(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.
(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.
272. (2.2.13.1-4) In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what statement is true regarding its installation?
(a) The steam trap should never be painted, but should be covered with insulation.
(b) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion and should be covered with insulation.
(c) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion but should never be covered with insulation.
(d) The steam trap should never be painted and should never be covered with insulation.
273. (2.2.14.3-1) In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by _ . Illustration GS-0012
(a) good metal-to-metal contact
(b) sealant between the two parts
(c) an asbestos gasket
(d) compressing the packing rings
274. (2.2.14.3-5) In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaft? Illustration GS-0011
(a) 45 1/4 inches
(b) 45 5/16 inches
(c) 53 5/8 inches
(d) 57 5/8 inches
275. (2.2.14.3-3) What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0012
(a) 1 inch
(b) 1 1/4 inches
(c) 1 1/2 inches
(d) 2 1/2 inches
276. (2.2.14.3-6) The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by _ _ . Illustration GS-0111
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) I
277. (2.2.14.3-4) What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustrated? Illustration GS-0011
(a) 34 5/8 inches
(b) 35 inches
(c) 35 5/8 inches
(d) 36 inches
278. (2.2.14.3-7) The term, whole depth of the gear, shown in the illustration, is equal to . Illustration GS-0111
(a) A + D
(b) B + D
(c) C + A
(d) C + D
279. (2.2.14.4-9) The illustration is drawn to a scale of 3/8 inch = 1 inch. What is the full size dimension of "X", if the scale lengths for "E" = 5/8", "F" = 1 3/8", "G" = 2 1/8", and "H" = 5 3/4"? Illustration GS-0007
(a) 1.625 inches
(b) 4.333 inches
(c) 6.094 inches
(d) 15.333 inches
280. (2.2.14.4-2) The physical feature indicated for each of the smallest diameter ends of the device illustrated is that they are _ . Illustration GS-0008
(a) threaded
(b) smooth surfaced with opposing machined flats
(c) smoothed surfaced only
(d) threaded with opposing machined flats
281. (2.2.14.4-3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the device shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0008
(a) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are flats on the shaft.
(b) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are steps in the shaft diameter.
(c) If the piece is symmetrical about the 3/16 hole, the threaded ends have longitudinal tolerance dimensions of 0.789 inch to 0.825 inch.
(d) All the 0.03 under cuts must be taken into account when adjusting lengths to meet the specified tolerances.
282. (2.2.14.4-4) Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an _ . Illustration GS-0019
(a) interference fit
(b) clearance of 0.005 inch
(c) running fit
(d) tolerance of 0.005 inch
283. (2.2.14.4-8) In the illustration shown, what is the distance indicated by dimension "I"? Illustration GS-0001
(a) 1 1/2 inches
(b) 1 3/4 inches
(c) 1 7/8 inches
(d) 2 inches
284. (2.2.14.4-5) The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal . Illustration GS- 0028
(a) rod with a conventional break
(b) tube with a broken out section
(c) pipe with a missing center section
(d) bar with a sawn out section
285. (2.2.14.4-1) The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the illustration is . Illustration GS-0010
(a) 1/8 inch
(b) 1/4 inch
(c) 3/8 inch
(d) 1/2 inch
286. (2.2.14.4-10) The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall length of 42 inches in addition to the following dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8 3/16". The tapered length "X" is
. Illustration GS-0133
(a) 6.375 inches
(b) 7.812 inches
(c) 8.185 inches
(d) 8.312 inches
287. (2.2.14.4-7) The letters 'NPT' used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration, indicates the _ _. Illustration GS-0010
(a) thread series
(b) thread profile
(c) class of finish
(d) class of fit
288. (2.2.14.2-2) In the illustration, line "C" is a _ . Illustration GS-0006
(a) dimension line
(b) leader line
(c) cutting plane line
(d) phantom line
289. (2.2.14.2-7) In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the letters "A", "B", and "C" indicate . Illustration GS-0036
(a) the use of internal threads
(b) hole tolerance
(c) finished diameter
(d) interference fit
290. (2.2.14.2-3) How many hidden lines are shown in the right side (end) view of the drawing illustrated? Illustration GS-0021
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Six
291. (2.2.14.2-6) In the illustration, line "D" is a/an . Illustration GS-0006
(a) hidden line
(b) sectioning line
(c) outline
(d) phantom line
292. (2.2.14.2-9) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0031
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
293. (2.2.14.2-1) In the illustration shown, what is the proper description of the hole represented by "C"? Illustration GS-0015
(a) Counter bored
(b) Countersunk
(c) Counter drilled
(d) Spot faced
294. (2.2.14.2-10) In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a/an _. Illustration GS-0006
(a) hidden line
(b) cutting plane line
(c) outline
(d) centerline
295. (2.2.14.2-4) Which of the conditions listed does the blueprint symbol shown in the illustration represent? Illustration GS-0028
(a) All surfaces are to be machine finished.
(b) A groove must be machined at the points designated.
(c) The thread form to be machined on the bolt.
(d) The surface should be finished with a welded overlay.
296. (2.2.14.2-5) In the illustration, line "C" is a _ . Illustration GS-0006
(a) dimension line
(b) leader line
(c) cutting plane line
(d) phantom line
297. (2.2.14.2-8) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0031
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) D
298. (2.2.14.5-1) Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will
. Illustration GS-0030
(a) designate the type of weldment
(b) designate the welding specifications
(c) specify the size of weldment
(d) specify the direction of welding
299. (2.2.14.1-1) As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection, and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"? Illustration GS-0165
(a) Figure "2"
(b) Figure "8"
(c) Figure "10"
(d) Figure "15"
300. (2.2.14.1-5) The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the . Illustration GS-0025
(a) total number of parts in the assembled component
(b) parts aligned for the correct order of reassembly
(c) disassembled component in a one point perspective view
(d) parts without using hidden lines
301. (2.2.14.1-7) Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the right side view of the unnumbered object in the illustration. Illustration GS-0003
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
302. (2.2.14.1-2) Which of the figures shown in the illustration depicts an orthographic projection? Illustration GS-0142
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
303. (2.2.20.1-1) In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential condition must exist?
(a) The two substances must be of different state of matter.
(b) The two substances must be of different specific gravity.
(c) The two substances must be of different pressure.
(d) The two substances must be of different temperature.
304. (2.2.20.1-2) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from one location to another by fluid in motion?
(a) Sublimation
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Conduction
305. (2.2.20.1-3) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within a body or between two bodies in direct contact?
(a) Radiation
(b) Conduction
(c) Sublimation
(d) Convection
306. (2.2.20.1-4) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy through a transparent medium by means of electromagnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?
(a) Conduction
(b) Sublimation
(c) Radiation
(d) Convection
307. (2.2.20.1-7) Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer. Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the
overall process?
(a) Radiation
(b) Natural convection
(c) Forced convection
(d) Conduction
308. (2.2.20.1-8) What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger boundary wall by conduction?
(a) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and directly proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and the area of the wall, and directly proportional to the wall thickness.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and inversely proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(d) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and the area of the wall, and inversely proportional to the wall thickness.
309. (2.2.20.1-9) What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of natural convection?
(a) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
(d) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
310. (2.2.20.2-1) What statement represents the first law of thermodynamics?
(a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first body must be greater than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, there is no mathematical relationship between the internal energy given up by the first body and the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first body must be less than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first body must be equal to the internal energy taken up by the second body.
311. (2.2.20.2-2) What statement represents the second law of thermodynamics?
(a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is unidirectional from the relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.
(b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow between the two bodies is unpredictable.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is unidirectional from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is bidirectional from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body and from the relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.
312. (2.2.20.2-3) If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal gases, what statement is true?
(a) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its pressure.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its temperature.
(d) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its temperature.
313. (2.2.20.2-4) If Charles' law describes the relationship between the temperature and volume of ideal gases, what statement is true?
(a) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its temperature.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its temperature.
(d) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its pressure.
314. (2.2.20.2-5) What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance one degree?
(a) Specific volume
(b) Specific gravity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat
315. (2.2.20.2-6) What statement represents the ideal gas law?
(a) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and inversely proportional to its temperature.
(b) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and directly proportional to its temperature.
(c) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and directly proportional to its temperature.
(d) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and inversely proportional to its temperature.
316. (2.2.20.2-7) What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?
(a) Latent heat of fusion
(b) Specific heat of vaporization
(c) Sensible heat of vaporization
(d) Latent heat of vaporization
317. (2.2.20.2-8) What term is defined as the rate of doing work?
(a) Power
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Mechanical work
(d) Potential energy
318. (2.2.20.2-9) What statement is true concerning thermal energy in transition?
(a) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance.
(b) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance.
(c) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance.
(d) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance.
319. (2.2.20.2-10) What statement is true concerning the internal energy of a substance?
(a) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of the state of matter of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance are in no way related to the temperature of a substance.
(b) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of
the temperature of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance are in no way related to the state of matter of a substance.
(c) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of the substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the substance.
(d) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of the substance.
320. (2.2.15.1-8) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?
(a) Jet drive
(b) Azimuthing propulsor
(c) Azipod propulsor
(d) Cycloidal propeller
321. (2.2.15.1-7) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Z- drive?
(a) Azimuthing propulsor
(b) Jet drive
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Azipod propulsor
322. (2.2.15.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion shafting rotation?
(a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Controllable-pitch propeller
(c) Tandem propellers
(d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
323. (2.2.15.1-4) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?
(a) Tandem propellers
(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Controllable-pitch propeller
(d) Fixed-pitch propeller
324. (2.2.15.1-2) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith Schneider drive?
(a) Ducted propeller
(b) Tandem propellers
(c) Vane wheel
(d) Cycloidal propeller
325. (2.2.15.1-3) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw propeller of the conventional design?
(a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Cycloidal propeller
(c) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(d) Controllable-pitch propeller
326. (2.2.15.1-10) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?
(a) Cycloidal propellers.
(b) Contra-rotating propellers.
(c) Tandem propellers.
(d) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.
327. (2.2.15.1-6) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder like blades projecting from it?
(a) Contra-rotating propeller
(b) Tandem propeller
(c) Helicoidal propeller
(d) Cycloidal propeller
328. (2.2.15.1-9) Concerning the operating mechanism of a controllable-pitch propeller, what statement is true?
(a) If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
(b) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, the blade rotating mechanism is actuated by a mechanical pull-push rod located within the propeller shaft.
(c) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft in either case.
(d) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
329. (2.2.15.5-1) The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what type?
(a) Single spur gears
(b) Single helical gears
(c) Double helical gears
(d) Double bevel gears
330. (2.2.15.5-5) Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with one another?
(a) Parallel axis gearing
(b) Bevel gearing
(c) Worm gearing
(d) Epicyclic gearing
331. (2.2.15.5-9) What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?
(a) Main propulsion reduction gear.
(b) Turbo-generator reduction gear.
(c) Main engine turning gear.
(d) Auxiliary power take-off gear.
332. (2.2.15.5-4) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.
(c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.
333. (2.2.15.5-10) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double reduction?
(a) Slow-speed diesel
(b) Medium-speed diesel
(c) High-speed diesel
(d) Gas turbine
334. (2.2.15.5-3) What is an example of an epicyclic gear?
(a) Planetary gear
(b) Articulated gear
(c) Nested gear
(d) Locked train gear
335. (2.2.15.5-8) Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?
(a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and low torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and high torque.
(b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and low torque.
(c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and low torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and high torque.
(d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and low torque.
336. (2.2.15.5-11) An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter wheel via a pair of belts. The power input is supplied by a 5 HP motor rotating the driving wheel at 300 RPM. If the efficiency of the transmission is 80%, what RPM and torque is delivered to the driven wheel?
(a) 120 RPM at 4 HP
(b) 160 RPM at 4 HP
(c) 220 RPM at 4.5 HP
(d) 220 RPM at 4.8 HP
337. (2.2.15.5-2) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a single reduction?
(a) Slow-speed diesel
(b) Medium-speed diesel
(c) Steam turbine
(d) Gas turbine
338. (2.2.15.5-7) Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of slip?
(a) Inflatable tire type clutch
(b) Flexible coupling
(c) Multiple disk friction clutch
(d) Electromagnetic clutch
339. (2.2.15.2-5) What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?
(a) Some line shaft bearings may have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection upwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.
(b) All line shaft bearings have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection downwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(c) All line shaft bearings have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection upwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(d) Some line shaft bearings may have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection downwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.
340. (2.2.15.2-9) Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?
(a) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil wick.
(b) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the bearing is by wick action.
(c) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil scraper.
(d) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the bearing is similar to the action of oiling rings.
341. (2.2.15.2-7) Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing shells on merchant ships?
(a) The intermediate line shaft bearing.
(b) The forward most line shaft bearing.
(c) All line shaft bearings have only a lower bearing shell.
(d) The aftermost line shaft bearing.
342. (2.2.15.2-3) What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?
(a) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by wick lubrication.
(b) Line shaft bearing are generally lubricated by force-feed lubrication.
(c) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by gravity feed lubrication.
(d) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by oiling rings or discs.
343. (2.2.15.2-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that the propeller is attached to?
(a) Line shaft
(b) Tail shaft
(c) Thrust shaft
(d) Head shaft
344. (2.2.15.2-6) What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?
(a) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and maintain the shaft in proper axial alignment.
(b) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and to transmit the radial thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(c) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and to transmit the axial thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(d) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and maintain the shaft in proper radial alignment.
345. (2.2.15.2-4) What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
(a) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings.
(b) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings.
(c) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings.
(d) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.
346. (2.2.15.2-10) What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on merchant ships?
(a) Pivoted-shoe thrust bearing.
(b) Split-half journal type bearing.
(c) Plain thrust bearing.
(d) Single piece bushing.
347. (2.2.15.4-8) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?
(a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Controllable-pitch propeller
348. (2.2.15.4-4) What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded propulsor?
(a) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.
(b) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
(c) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is steerable.
(d) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is not steerable.
349. (2.2.15.4-9) What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when installed on ships?
(a) They provide increased overall propulsive reverse thrust.
(b) They provide increased maneuverability at low ship speeds.
(c) They provide increased overall propulsive forward thrust.
(d) They provide increased maneuverability at high ship speeds.
350. (2.2.15.4-1) Concerning transverse fixed tunnel thrusters, what statement is true?
(a) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
(b) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwart ships, usually located at the bow of a vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
(c) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwart ships, usually located at the bow of a vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
(d) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
351. (2.2.15.4-3) With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?
(a) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the inlet guide vanes to the pump inlet.
(b) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the deflector vanes of the pump discharge.
(c) The vectoring ring is used to control the speed and direction of rotation of the pump.
(d) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the vanes on the pump impeller.
352. (2.2.15.4-10) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?
(a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.
353. (2.2.15.4-5) With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
(b) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
(c) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in the wake of the gear unit.
354. (2.2.15.4-2) Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?
(a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of rotation of the pump.
(b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch angle of the pump impeller.
(c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of the pump inlet guide vanes.
(d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of the water discharge vectoring ring.
355. (2.2.15.3-2) What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?
(a) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
(b) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
(c) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
(d) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
356. (2.2.15.3-5) What statement is true with respect to the pressure side of a propeller blade?
(a) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and is also known as the back of the blade.
(b) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is also known as the back of the blade.
(c) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is also known as the face of the blade.
(d) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and is also known as the face of the blade.
357. (2.2.15.3-3) What is meant by the term "left-handed" propeller?
(a) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in either direction.
(b) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either direction.
(c) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when viewed from ahead.
(d) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when viewed from astern.
358. (2.2.16.4.3-1) An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will _.
(a) increase discharge pressure
(b) decrease pump cavitation
(c) decrease pump capacity
(d) decrease reaction ring clearance
359. (2.2.16.3.4-3) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to _ _ .
(a) separate air from the liquid being pumped
(b) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
(c) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
(d) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
360. (2.2.16.3.4-2) The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __.
(a) develop a high velocity liquid
(b) limit hydraulic end thrust
(c) initiate flow
(d) convert velocity to pressure
361. (2.2.16.3.4-4) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?
(a) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
(b) They are started with the discharge valve opened.
(c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
(d) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
362. (2.2.16.4.1-6) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the
(a) direction of rotation of the screws
(b) type of driving gears
(c) pitch of the screws
(d) stuffing box diameter
363. (2.2.16.4.1-8) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
(a) Rubber bellows mechanical seal
(b) Double mechanical seal
(c) External mechanical seal
(d) Conventional stuffing box
364. (2.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?
(a) Replaceable gib inserts
(b) Casing gear thrust bearings
(c) Spur gear adjusters
(d) Replaceable liner plates
365. (2.2.16.4.1-9) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that .
(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(c) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications
366. (2.2.16.4.1-10) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071
(a) spring
(b) notch and keyway
(c) seal retaining ring
(d) bellows
367. (2.2.16.4.1-1) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
. Illustration GS-0075
(a) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump
(b) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
(c) area for pump packing
(d) passage for gas to be discharged
368. (2.2.16.4.1-4) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0144
(a) Deep well centrifugal pump
(b) Simplex reciprocating pump
(c) Triple screw rotary pump
(d) Double screw rotary pump
369. (2.2.16.4.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal facing . Illustration GS-0152
(a) away from the bearing housing recess
(b) toward the bearing preload washer
(c) away from the oil pressure being sealed
(d) toward the oil pressure being sealed
370. (2.2.16.4.1-5) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
(a) moving the slide block and rotor
(b) changing the angle of the tilting plate
(c) moving the shaft trunnion block
(d) changing the speed of the pump
371. (2.2.16.3.3-5) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
(a) Scoring may result.
(b) Valve seat will be damaged.
(c) Heat transfer is restricted.
(d) Bonnet corrosion may result.
372. (2.2.16.3.3-4) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?
(a) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(b) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.
373. (2.2.16.3.3-1) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?
(a) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
(c) Block off the sealing water connection.
(d) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.
374. (2.2.16.3.3-8) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to _.
(a) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
(b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
(c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(d) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
375. (2.2.16.3.3-2) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?
(a) Throttle in on the suction valve.
(b) Replace the lantern rings.
(c) Replace the wearing rings.
(d) Throttle in on the discharge valve.
376. (2.2.16.3.3-7) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be .
(a) replaced with a satisfactory spare
(b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
(c) repaired by a suitable welding process
(d) reconditioned by metalizing and machining
377. (2.2.16.3.3-3) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be _ .
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
378. (2.2.16.4.4-2) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump _.
(a) discharge volume
(b) suction pressure
(c) torque rating
(d) rotor clearances
379. (2.2.16.4.4-4) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?
(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
(c) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(d) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
380. (2.2.16.4.4-3) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?
(a) The pump can only be used for light oils.
(b) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
(c) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
(d) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
381. (2.2.16.4.4-1) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
(a) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
(b) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
(c) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
(d) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
382. (2.2.16.1-6) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the remainder is the .
(a) total suction head
(b) pump head
(c) apparent net positive suction head
(d) discharge head
383. (2.2.16.1-7) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?
(a) Total head
(b) Discharge head
(c) Pump head
(d) Suction head
384. (2.2.16.1-1) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the _ .
(a) suction head