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The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the __________. Oil Transfer Procedures Manual Code of Federal Regulations Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection
You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines? The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%. At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank. The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days. The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at a position __________. one meter from the deck immediately above the level of the oil in the vent riser at the top of the tank
You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks? 0 (%) 5 (%) 8 (%) 11 (%)
What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing? 5 (%) 12 (%) 10 (%) 8 (%)
Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" are faced with additional problems for their safe operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric oxidation" what does this result in? a second scrubber, known as an alkaline scrubber, to be added in series to the "normal" scrubber. particles of rust in the tanks reaching a high temperature during "gas free" operations. a lighter grade of crude being needed for tank washing. additional time for tank cleaning.
When cleaning a tank by the Butterworth process, you should begin to pump out the slops __________. at the end of the drop schedule when the tank is clean when the process is finished when the process is started
When cleaning cargo tanks with portable machines, how is the machine grounded? The water supply hoses contain internal wires that act as conductors The machines must maintain physical contact with the deck at the Butterworth opening. The water jets impinging on the vessel's structure form a pathway to ground. Bonding wires are secured from the machine to a convenient location on deck.
You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks? The source tank for the tank cleaning machines must have least one meter decanted from it. The inert gas system must reduce the oxygen content in the tanks to a maximum of 18%. The portable machines must be set at the proper drop for the first wash before the fixed machines are used. The fixed machines must be operated simultaneously with the portable machines to equalize the electrostatic potential.
You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine by structural members? Ventilate the tank to eliminate any electrostatically charged mist. Insure that the tanks are not stripped until the final wash is started. Attach the water supply hose to the portable machine after the cleaning head is positioned inside the tank. Ground the fixed machines to eliminate any electrostatic buildup on the cleaning head.
You are cleaning the tanks after carrying a cargo of crude oil. Which statement is TRUE? The hoses to portable cleaning machines should be disconnected before the machines are removed from the tank. Washing water should be recirculated if possible because it has the same electric potential as the cargo tank being cleaned. The principal hazard with steaming cargo tanks is raising the ambient temperature above the flame point of the cargo residue. Steam cleaning and water washing are both capable of generating electrostatic charges within a tank.
When tank cleaning with a portable machine, the weight of the machine is suspended from __________. the supply hose a wire rope suspension line the suspension line, usually manila or natural fiber line solid iron bars clamped to the Butterworth opening
You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in the lines running to the washing machines? Open a COW nozzle forward and one aft and drain the line into the after tank by gravity Blow the line out using compressed air Close off all valves in the system and leave the oil in the line primed for the next crude oil wash Pull a suction using the supply line pump
What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing system? Decant one meter from the source tank for the tank cleaning machines. Use an inert gas system while washing tanks. Use portable washing machines to reach areas obscured by structural members in the tanks. Strip all tanks and remove the bottom residue.
In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following? gas free inerted opened to the atmosphere for ventilation full of cargo
Where will the complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel be found? Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection Oil Transfer Procedures Manual Code of Federal Regulations Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual
In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator? The clean tanks should be ballasted. Chemicals should be added to emulsify the oil. The slops should be allowed time to settle. The dirty ballast tank is crude oil washed.
You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks? The source tank for the tank cleaning machines must have least one meter decanted from it. The portable machines must be set at the proper drop for the first wash before the fixed machines are used. The fixed machines must be operated simultaneously with the portable machines to equalize the electrostatic potential. The inert gas system must reduce the oxygen content in the tanks to a maximum of 18%.
What type of heat must be applied in order to raise the temperature of water from 60 degrees F to 180 degrees F? latent heat sensible heat crucial heat super heat
You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine by structural members? Attach the water supply hose to the portable machine after the cleaning head is positioned inside the tank. Ventilate the tank to eliminate any electrostatically charged mist. Ground the fixed machines to eliminate any electrostatic buildup on the cleaning head. Insure that the tanks are not stripped until the final wash is started.
You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines? The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days. At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank. The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%. The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in the lines running to the washing machines? Close off all valves in the system and leave the oil in the line primed for the next crude oil wash Blow the line out using compressed air Pull a suction using the supply line pump Open a COW nozzle forward and one aft and drain the line into the after tank by gravity
Which of the following shall be used to isolate fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker from the crude oil washing system? nonreturn valves automatic closing valves face blanks spade blanks
Oil product samples should be taken at the commencement and completion of loading operations. As the Person in Charge, where should the the final samples be taken? the dock riser the shore tank discharge the vessel's cargo tanks the shore line low points
Which of the terms best describes the process of the production of vapor above the surface of a boiling cargo due to evaporation on an LNG tanker? condensation adiabatic boil-off solidification
If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be which of the following? within the "explosive range" below the "explosive range" above the "lower explosive limit" above the "explosive range"
The boiling point of Methane is -161C. How is the substance carried? Normal ambient temperature. Fully pressurized. Fully refrigerated. Atmospheric pressure.
Which of the following would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product? Reid vapor pressure of 7 psia, flash point of 85F. Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia, flash point of 60F. Reid vapor pressure of 5 psia, flash point of 70F. Reid vapor pressure above 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia.
LNG is carried at approximately what temperature? -160 degrees C -160 degrees K -160 degress F -160 degrees R
Which of the following is an example of a example of a grade D product? kerosene aviation gas grade 115/145 commercial gasoline heavy fuel oil
What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas? temperature flammability toxicity pressure
What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas? temperature toxicity flammability pressure
Which of the following defines flammable liquids for the purpose of U.S. regulations? liquids that give off flammable vapors at or below 80F (27C) liquids that sustain combustion at a temperature at or below 100F (38C) liquids that give off flammable vapors only above 80F (27C) liquids that have a Reid vapor pressure of 18 pounds or more
Which of the following describes a liquified gas? A substance that at normal temperature and pressure would be a gas. A liquid that needs to be stored at absolute zero to prevent it becoming gaseous. A liquid that requires to be heated above normal ambient temperature to make it form a gas. A gas that is mixed with another substance that causes it to liquify.
What is Reid Vapor Pressure? exerted by liquid cargo on a cargo hose body the lowest temperature and pressure that will cause a flammable liquid to give off vapors a measurement of the amount of flammable vapors given off by a liquid at a certain temperature exerted by liquid cargo on the sides of a tank
What is the lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame? autoignition temperature vaporization temperature fire point flash point
What grade are most crude oils are classified as? A or B E C or D B
Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 160F 87F 155F 65F
What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E refer to in grades of cargo? degrees of quality of petroleum products grades of crude oil pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products
What is the standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry? liter barrel gallon drum
Which of the following describes the flash point temperature of a liquid? at which a liquid will explode at which a liquid will burn steadily at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily
What is the standard net barrel for petroleum products? 60 gallons at 100Saybolt 48 gallons at 70Fahrenheit 50 gallons at 50Celsius 42 gallons at 60Fahrenheit
In what condition is LNG transported? At its critical temperature. At a pressure in excess of 15.4 PSIA. At its boiling point. At its vapor stage
What is the most common liquified gas cargo? chemical gases butane ammonia hydrocarbons
Which of the following describes one of the principle dangers inherent in liquified petroleum gas? as it warms up it becomes heavier than air the way it reacts with sea water its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing the strong odor it produces
What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo define? grades of crude oil pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products degrees of quality of petroleum products
Grade E combustible liquids have a flash point of __________. 60F to 100F 80F to 150F 150F or above 90F to 120F
Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum flash point of __________. 100F 80F 109F 149F
Most liquified gas cargoes are flammable, and are carried at or close to their boiling point. What will happen if they are released into the atmosphere? result in sloshing in the tank which could make the ship unstable burn, if it's within its flammable range and has an ignition source freeze and possibly cause structural damage allow air to enter the system causing polymerization
The designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo refer to the __________. pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products degrees of quality of petroleum products grades of crude oil
Which of the following grade classifications is assigned to Camphor oil? A C D E
Which product is most likely to accumulate static electricity? Residual fuel oil Lubricating oil Crude oil Hard asphalt
Most crude oils are classified as grade __________. E A or B C or D B
A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 85F. This is a grade __________. B flammable liquid C flammable liquid D combustible liquid E combustible liquid
Flammable liquid means any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below __________. 40F (4.4C) 80F (26.7C) 110F (43.3C) 150F (65.6C)
Combustible liquids are divided into how many grades? One Two Three Four
Combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above __________. 40F ( 4C) 80F (27C) 110F (43C) 150F (66C)
A combustible liquid with a flash point of 90F would be grade __________. B C D E
A flammable liquid having a Reid vapor pressure of 8 P.S.I.A. or less and a flash point of 80F or below is grade __________. A B C D
A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 135Fahrenheit. This liquid is classed as a grade __________. B flammable liquid C flammable liquid D combustible liquid E combustible liquid
Butadiene, inhibited, is labeled as a __________. flammable gas flammable liquid combustible liquid flammable solid
The vapor pressure of a substance __________. increases with the temperature may increase or decrease as the temperature rises is not affected by temperature decreases as temperature increases
When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________. total weight of barite in UPC (ullages per centimeter) distance of the barite surface above the tank bottom distance of the barite surface below the tank cover percentage of barite in the tank
The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the pressure necessary to keep it in what state? solid state soluble state liquified state inert state
What does the term "oil", as used in the U.S. regulations mean? liquefied petroleum gas petroleum oil of any kind fuel oil only crude oil only
Which of the following reacts dangerously with vinyl chloride? concentrated nitric acid alkalies saltwater organic acids
A combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above what temperature? 40F (4C) 80F (27C) 110F (43C) 150F (66C)
What is the flash point of a Grade D liquid? 212F or greater greater than 80F and less than 150F 80F or less 150F or greater but less than 212F
You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE? Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1 and 2 wing tanks. A tank of pyridine may be used to separate a tank of carbon disulfide from a tank of diisopropylamine. Pyridine and diisopropylamine may be carried in tanks having a common header vent. Carbon disulfide must be separated from pyridine by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty tanks, etc.).
What is the flash point of vinyl chloride? -108F (-78C) 32F (0C) -20F (-29C) 97F (36C)
What happens to the volume of flammable and combustible liquids when temperature is increased? it expands it remains constant if pressure remains constant it remains constant it contracts
Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker? Reid vapor pressures Flash points Contamination of the cargo Specific gravities
What is the temperature at which a vapor mixture, at a given pressure, begins to condense? boiling point critical point bubble point dew point
Some cargoes can react with air to form unstable oxygen compounds which could cause them to do which of the following? form CO2 form water explode polymerize
Which of the following will be the indication of the tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize? flammable range ignition temperature convection index flash point
Which of the following describes the relationship between the vapor pressure of a substance and temperature? increases with the temperature is not affected by temperature decreases as temperature increases may increase or decrease as the temperature rises
What is the general name given to propane, butane, and mixtures of the two? LNG NGL LEG LPG
Which of the following describes one of the principle dangers inherent in liquified petroleum gas? as it warms up it becomes heavier than air its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing the way it reacts with sea water the strong odor it produces
Which of the following is a characteristic of Methane gas? it is corrosive it is odorless it is volatile it is active
The fitting at the end of a cargo line in a tank that allows suction to be taken close to the bottom of a tank is a __________. bell-mouth vacuum valve strainer suction end
The system of valves and cargo lines in the bottom piping network of a tank vessel that connects one section of cargo tanks to another section is called a __________. runaround crossover manifold come-along
The pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on a tank vessel is known as a __________. crossover connection transfer junction
The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold directly to a cargo tank and serves only one tank is known as a __________. branch line tank drop filler line cargo fill
The main underdeck pipeline on a tankship is connected to individual tanks by __________. line drops crossovers tank drops branch lines
The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold to underdeck pipelines is known as a __________. branch line cargo fill line drop transfer
Pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock should be prevented by __________. tying off the topping lifts and runners to winch heads laying out an excess length of hose on deck adjusting the hose supports All of the above.
A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe is referred to as a __________. blind flange pivot coupling spectacle flange quick-release coupling
The main function of a stripping system is to __________. dispose of dangerous vapors within the cargo tanks maintain the temperature of the cargo throughout the vessel discharge liquid left in the cargo tanks after the main pumps have discharged the bulk increase the loading rate of the shoreside pumps
What will NOT increase friction of a liquid flowing in a pipe and cause a loss of suction head? Slowing the pumping rate Bends in the piping Pipeline valves Backing rings for pipe welds
Your non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system? A non-return valve A stop valve A 5-gallon can or a fixed containment system A means to stop each pump
Insulating flanges minimize the dangers arising from which of the following? smoking on deck accumulations of electrostatic charges loading asphalt tank over-pressurization
What is the most commonly used material for valve construction in LNG cargo piping? 9% nickel alloy steel. Stainless steel. Aluminum. 5% nickel alloy steel.
What should you use when hooking up a cargo hose to your vessel manifold? international shore connection oxygen analyzer insulating flange or single length of non-conducting hose self-contained breathing apparatus
In accordance with regulations, what is the required bursting pressure of a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases? 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer one half the designed working pressure 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
On a vapor control system, what must each vessel's vapor connection flange have? pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange hose saddle stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face 6" reducer
What is the first action you should take to prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system? open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump open block valves, then start the cargo pump start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
A relief valve for a cargo pump is generally installed __________. between the pump and suction valve after the discharge valve between the pump and discharge valve after the suction valve
Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________. 6 feet 8 feet 10 feet 12 feet
Which statement is TRUE concerning deep well self-priming pumps? When loading oil cargo, it is always loaded via the discharge line through to the pump until the tank is topped off. In recent years deep well pumps have become increasingly unpopular in product tankers and medium size crude ships. Stripping systems are generally eliminated for the purposes of cargo handling. There is no danger of damaging the pump from overheating.
Which statement about a centrifugal cargo pump is TRUE? It is a positive displacement pump. Increasing rotation speed will decrease discharge pressure. It must have a positive suction. All of the above.
What is a characteristic of all centrifugal cargo pumps? Decreasing the speed of rotation will decrease the discharge pressure. Opening the discharge valve wider will increase the discharge pressure. They are self-priming. All of the above.
What is NOT an advantage of centrifugal pumps over reciprocating pumps? They pump more cargo in less time. They require priming for stripping. They are less expensive. They are smaller for equivalent pumping ability.
Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers? They are more expensive than reciprocating pumps. They are used for stripping pumps. They require extensive maintenance. They are gravity-fed.
Which pump must always be primed? Centrifugal pump Reciprocating pump Rotary pump All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tank vessels? They are positive displacement pumps. They are gravity-fed. They require more maintenance than a reciprocating pump. They produce a pulsating flow.
Centrifugal pumps have what advantage(s) over reciprocating pumps? They pump more cargo in less time. They are smaller for equivalent pumping ability. They are less expensive. All of the above.
A deepwell pump is a type of __________. gear pump centrifugal pump screw pump eductor
All of the following steps are taken in starting a centrifugal pump, EXCEPT to __________. check the lubrication system vent the pump casing set the relief valve open the pump suction and discharge valves
You may be able to avoid loss of suction in a pump by __________. using a full tank to keep the pump primed opening the vent cock on the pump closing down on the tank valve All of the above.
You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works for a while and then loses suction. This could be caused by __________. the pump running backwards the discharge head being too high incomplete priming All of the above.
Which method should be used to warm up the pump turbines prior to discharge? Run the turbine at slow speed with the pump disconnected Shut the discharge valve and run the pump at slow speed Lock the turbine rotor and slowly bleed in steam until operating temperature is reached Run the pump at high speed with the discharge valves closed
What is LEAST likely to be used to strip a cargo tank? Centrifugal pump Reciprocating pump Eductor Rotary pump
On what type of pump would you find an impeller? Piston Vane Gear Centrifugal
If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to do which of the following? overspeed the driving end turn backward overheat stop
Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least what temperature? 100C 1200F 212F 500F
Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid? Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a common line. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a common line.
On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge? Clipper seals Flinger rings Shaft sleeves Mechanical seals
Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers? They are more expensive than reciprocating pumps. They are used for stripping pumps. They are used for stripping pumps. They are gravity-fed.
Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct? A pumproom is not necessary. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft. Special priming provisions are necessary.
The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of which of the following? booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction ships pump speeding up booster pump failing to start
What are submerged LNG pump bearings lubricated by? silicon grease graphite LNG Low Temp-a special cryogenic lubricant
What is the purpose of pressure-vacuum relief valves? Automatic regulation of pressure or vacuum in enclosed spaces. Regulation of discharge pressure from cargo pumps Maintaining constant velocity in cargo lines Regulation of suction head on cargo pumps
To insure proper seating when closing a valve on a tank, the valve should be __________. set up as tight as possible by hand closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again set up tight using a valve wrench
The valve on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel will usually be a __________. gate valve check valve butterfly valve globe valve
What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves? They are designed to provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by thermal variations in a cargo tank. They should operate in advance of the pressure/vacuum breakers. They should be kept in good working order by regular inspection and cleaning. All of the above.
What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump? Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump Provides for the removal of vapors Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump
Cargo pump relief valves are piped to the __________. atmosphere through pump vents crossover lines interconnecting two pumps cargo pump pressure gauges suction side of pumps
Which characteristic is an advantage of a butterfly valve as compared to a gate valve? No resistance to cargo flow when open Precise control over cargo flow Quick operation Less maintenance required
What is an advantage of a gate valve over a butterfly valve? Less frequent maintenance More compact Faster operation Cheaper
A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________. filter restrictor stopper screen
What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position? From above the seat From below the seat Depends on seat configuration Direction is unimportant
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)? 1 2 3 4
What type of valve will usually be on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel? gate valve globe valve check valve butterfly valve
Which of the following applies to cargo tank safety valves? can be opened by pilot valves are not held closed by tank pressure are not to be "popped" in port All of the above.
What is a single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe? spectacle flange pivot coupling quick-release coupling blind flange
What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves? They should be kept in good working order by regular inspection and cleaning. They should operate in advance of the pressure/vacuum breakers. They are designed to provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by thermal variations in a cargo tank. All of the above.
Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent __________. escape of explosive vapors oil spillage on deck contamination from other tanks damage to tank boundaries
The periodic weight testing of a vessel's cargo booms may be performed by the __________. American Bureau of Shipping Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers National Cargo Bureau U.S. Coast Guard
What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom? Topping lift Spanner guy Working guy Lizard
What is meant by the term "topping the boom"? Spotting the boom over the deck Swinging the boom athwartships Lowering the boom Raising the boom
What is meant by "spotting the boom"? Two-blocking it Lowering it into a cradle Spotting it with wash primer and red lead Placing it in a desired position
The process of lowering a boom to a horizontal position and onto its deck support is called __________. collaring a boom cradling a boom toppling a boom spotting a boom
The heel block is located __________. at the base of the boom near the spider band near the midships guy at the cargo hook
The head block is located __________. at the base of the boom on top of the jack staff at the head of the boom at the head of the mast
A band or collar on the top end of a boom to which the topping lift, midships guy, and outboard guys are secured, is called the __________. spider band guy band collar band pad eye collar
Which part of a cargo boom has the greatest diameter? It has the same diameter along its complete length. Head Heel Middle
What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom? Date of the last quadrennial test Maximum angle of elevation permitted Maximum load when doubled up Safe working load
The safe working load for the assembled cargo gear and the minimum angle to the horizontal for which the gear is designed shall be marked on the __________. head of the boom heel of the boom deck mast or king post
The fitting that allows a boom to move freely both vertically and laterally is called the __________. swivel spider band gooseneck lizard
The main advantage and chief characteristic of a Steulchen boom is that it can be __________. operated by one winchman collared to the mast cradled on deck swung from one hatch to the adjacent hatch
With a given load on the cargo hook, the thrust on a cargo boom __________. is greatest at an angle of 45 and decreases as the boom is raised or lowered increases as the angle to the horizontal increases is least at an angle of 45 and increases as the boom is raised or lowered increases as the angle to the horizontal decreases
The greatest strain, when lifting a load with the jumbo purchase, is on __________. the parts in the movable block the hauling part because it must absorb the frictional losses of all the sheaves the standing part because it is directly connected to the weight all of the parts, dividing the load equally
For a given weight of cargo, the stress on the heel block of a cargo boom __________. is determined by the thrust stresses on the boom increases as the cargo closes the head while hoisting increases if the cargo runner is doubled up decreases as the boom is topped to a greater angle
The greatest horizontal stress between the heads of the booms in the yard and stay rig occurs when the load is in such a position that the __________. stay fall is at a greater angle to the horizontal than the yard fall stay fall is vertical yard fall is at a greater angle to the horizontal than the stay fall falls are at an equal angle to the horizontal
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20 to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60 to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE? The thrust on the boom is greater at 20. The stress on the head block is greater at 60. The angle of elevation does not change the stresses in the masthead fairlead for the topping lift. The stress on the heel block is greater at 60.
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20 to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60 to the horizontal, which statement is true? The change in angle of elevation has no effect on the stresses in the head block. The thrust on the boom is greater at 20. The stress on the heel block is less at 60. The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60.
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses in the rig with the boom at 20 to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60 to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE? The stress on the heel block is less at 20. The thrust on the boom is greater at 20. The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60. The stress on the masthead fairlead for the topping lift is greater at 20.
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20 to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60 to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE? The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60. The stress on the heel block is less at 20. The stress on the head block is less at 60. The thrust on the boom is greater at 60.
The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended, thumb pointing downwards, flexing fingers in and out. This is the signal to __________. lower the load and raise the boom raise the load and lower the boom lower the boom and raise the load raise the boom and lower the load
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended with the palm down and holds this position rigidly. This is the signal to __________. lower stop hoist swing
How should you signal the crane operator to hoist? With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm with fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. Place both fists in front of body with the thumbs pointing upward.
How should you signal the crane operator to use the main hoist? First tap your elbow with one hand, and then proceed to use regular signals. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. First tap the top of your head with your fist, and then proceed to use regular signals.
How should you signal the crane operator to lower? With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom. Extend arm with thumb pointing downward, and flex fingers in and out.
How should you signal the crane operator to use the whip line? First tap your elbow with one hand, and then proceed to use regular signals. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. First tap the top of your head with your fist, and then proceed to use regular signals.
How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom and lower the load? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Clasp hands in front of your body. Place both fists in front of your body with thumbs pointing toward each other.
How should you signal the crane operator to move slowly? First tap the top of your head with your fist and then proceed to use regular signals. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. First tap your elbow with one hand and then proceed to use regular signals.
How should you signal the crane operator to stop? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Clasp hands in front of your body. Place both fists in front of your body with the thumbs pointing outward. With both arms extended out and palms down, move arms back and forth.
How should you signal the crane operator to dog everything? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out. Place both fists in front of your body with thumbs pointing toward each other. Clasp hands in front of your body.
How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom? With arm extended and fingers closed, point thumb downward. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. With hands clasped in front of your body. Extend arm with the palm down, and hold this position rigidly.
How should you signal the crane operator to swing? Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing outward. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom. With both arms extended out and palms down, move arms back and forth.
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended and is pointing his finger in the direction to move the boom. This is the signal to __________. hoist extend swing lower
How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom? Extend arm with the thumb pointing up and flex the fingers in and out. With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm with fingers closed and point thumb upward. Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing upward.
How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom and raise the load? With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom. Extend arm with thumb pointing downward and flex fingers in and out. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles.
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended downwards, forefinger pointing down, and moves his hand in small horizontal circles. This is the signal to __________. hoist lower extend swing
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, and moves his hand in a small horizontal circle. This is the signal to __________. extend lower swing hoist
How should you signal the crane operator to stop in an emergency? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing outward. Extend arm and move hand rapidly right and left with the palm down. Place clasped hands in front of your body.
The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended with his fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. This is the signal to __________. check the boom stop raise the hook raise the boom and hook raise the boom
The signal man has both arms extended out, palms down, and is moving his arms back and forth. This is the signal for __________. emergency stop swing right keep lifting swing left
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, with the thumb pointing up, and is flexing his fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. This is the signal to __________. raise the boom and lower the load lower the boom and lower the load raise the boom and raise the load lower the boom and raise the load
The signal man assisting the crane operator uses one hand to give any motion signal and places the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. This is the signal to __________. increase speed proceed with caution stop move slowly
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, his fingers closed, and his thumb pointing downward. This is the signal to __________. lower the load hoist the load raise the boom lower the boom
The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps his elbow with one hand and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________. use the main hoist use the whip line proceed slowly increase speed
The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps the top of his head with his fist and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________. use the main hoist use the whip line proceed slowly use the auxiliary line
The signal man assisting the crane operator has one hand occupied and one fist in front of his chest with the thumb pointing outward and is tapping his chest with the heel of his fist. This is the signal to __________. hoist the boom extend the boom retract the boom lower the boom
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his hands clasped in front of his body. This is the signal to __________. stop prepare for signal dog everything stand-by
What does item "K" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Cargo snaking cables Manual slewing cables Rider block taglines Jib luffing cables
What does item "G" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Pillar Turntable Pedestal Mast
What does item "E" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Tagline Cargo snaking wire Electric cable Hook release cable
What does item "A" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Slewing cable Cargo hoist falls Remote block tagline system Boom luffing falls
Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function? Luff travel limits Turntable limits Slew travel limits All of the above.
Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function? Slew travel limits Slew rate limits Swivel power limits Luff rate limits
What does item "C" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Equalizing beam Block/hook assembly Hoist fall spreader Rider block
What does item "D" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Hook block Heel block Gin block Rider block
The crane manufacturer's operating tables are posted near the __________. crane controls crane pedestal main deck wire-rope locker
Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane? Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the topping lift. Taglines are wire ropes payed-out or taken-in for positioning the crane pedestal. Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the jib. Taglines can be fastened to the corners of vehicles or containers during cargo operations.
Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane? The taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the topping lift. Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the jib. The crane might not have taglines installed in its rigging system. Taglines can be fastened to the corners of the jib when lifting containers.
What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D051DG can lift when married together in twin with the other pair of cranes at the opposite end of the hatch? 30 tons 90 tons 120 tons 60 tons
Which safety precaution(s) should be observed during crane operations? Using the proper slings or other lifting devices during cargo operations Checking for proper lifting from beneath the load during cargo operations Relaying communications to port agents on the pier during cargo hoists All of the above.
When a cargo boom or crane is rated at varying capacities, there will be a table at the controls which relates safe working load to __________. cable strength winch speed boom strength load radius
Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG? Crane house assembly Foundation assembly Turntable assembly All of the above.
It is the responsibility of the crane operator to, at all times, be aware of the location of the __________. boom hook load All of the above.
What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D049DG can lift in the twin mode? 15 tons 30 tons 60 tons 120 tons
Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG? Hook block assembly Boom assembly Operator's cab All of the above.
What should be given, as a minimum, to personnel who are involved in crane cargo handling? Protective head gear, gloves, and steel-toed safety shoes A life preserver for going aloft to work on the crane A survival suit for work on the stern or side port All of the above.
Which of the following is/are the optional component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG? Rider block tagline system Hook block assembly Boom assembly All of the above.
The load chart of a crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________. allowable load maximum counter weight required hoist rope strength minimum horsepower required
The 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in the illustration D047DG can lift a maximum weight of how many tons in the single mode? 120 tons 60 tons 30 tons 15 tons
On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of the boom length and __________. winch speed boom strength cable strength load radius
When should a crane boom-up so high that the boom hits the stops? Only if the load has not exceeded the limit at that angle Never Only if necessary to perform a given lift Only if the load contains non-hazardous materials
The boom stops on a pedestal crane prevent the boom from __________. being raised too high swinging at sea overloading when not in use being lowered too low
For any given pedestal crane, when the boom is lengthened, the lifting capacity is __________. decreased eliminated unchanged increased
The boom indicator on a crane will indicate the __________. direction of the boom length of the boom angle of the boom lifting capacity of the boom
The boom indicator tells the operator at what angle the boom is compared to the __________. horizontal position of the load being lifted vertical position of the load being lifted horizontal position of the boom vertical position of the boom
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding crane operations? The aft cranes can be operated from the aft steering station. The forward cranes can be operated from the bridge. Radio communications allow the crane operator to disregard the use of hand signals. The crane operators and signalman must be familiar with the correct hand signals.
Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations? Pre-operation checks and start-up Removing booms from stowage Luff, slew, and hoist operations All of the above.
Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations? Removing booms from stowage Emergency shutdown operation Normal boom stowage and shutdown operations All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes? Each single boom is of the partial-level luffing type and is capable of limited rotation. A slew drive system provides for rotation of each crane. An independent slew drive system rotates the turntable. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes? Maintenance logs and records are to be kept for each crane. A slew drive system provides for rotation of each crane. Each single boom is of the partial-level luffing type and is capable of limited rotation. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin pedestal crane set? The cranes may be interconnected for twin operation. The cranes may be operated independently. When twinned, the crane rotation on the foundation assembly is unlimited. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE regarding a twin pedestal crane set? The cranes may be interconnected for twin operation. The cranes may be operated independently. The cranes are powered by independent internal combustion power units. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes? Each crane is supplied with luff, hoist, and slew functions for crane load handling. An independent slew drive system rotates the turntable. A slew drive system provides for rotation of each crane. All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE regarding the operation of a crane? The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by a jibing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch.
Which statement is FALSE regarding the operation of a crane? The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The cargo block is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. None of the above
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the operation of a crane? The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch. The load is handled by the hoisting winch and cargo block. All of the above.
Who should be notified prior to starting up a crane? The engine room The stevedore foreman The pumpman All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations? Cargo handlers must be outfitted with adequate protection from personal injury. Do not exceed rated load capacity of crane and container spreader or slings. During any cargo handling operation, the safety of personnel is paramount. All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations? Lifting points on all equipment must be safely checked prior to commencing a lift. Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting needs to be properly secured so as to prevent shifting during transport. Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs. All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations? Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs. Lifting points on all equipment need not be checked prior to commencing a lift. Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting need not be secured. All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are FALSE concerning crane cargo operations? Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs. Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting need not be secured. Lifting points on all equipment must be safely checked prior to commencing a lift. All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when completing a quad lift? The discharge is slow due to the size of the cargo and all the cranes working together. The cargo discharge cannot be performed at anchor. The cranes require shoreside assistance to handle heavy cargos. The cargo discharge cannot be accomplished without pendulation.
Which action(s) should the operator of a pedestal crane take if crane control is lost? Let go of both control levers and return to neutral position. Press the emergency stop. Notify the mate on watch. All of the above.
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Bunkering More than 3 list High winds Potable water spill on deck
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Potable water spill on deck Crane hydraulic hose bursts Trim greater than 4 feet Bunkering barge alongside
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Lightning Fire aboard High winds All of the above.
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Lightning in the vicinity An approaching squall line A fire on the pier All of the above.
Which wire rope purchases may be used with a 30-ton pedestal crane? Rider block Luff Hoist All of the above.
Which wire rope purchase(s) is/are optional with a 30-Ton pedestal crane? Rider block Hoist Luff All of the above.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning cranes being installed on the centerline of vessels? They are more economical and weigh less. One crane is able to work one end of two adjacent hatches. One crane is able to work both sides of the ship. All of the above.
Which piece(s) of equipment is/are required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes aboard a crane vessel? Portable power swivel Equalizing beam 20-foot container spreader All of the above.
What is the purpose of the equalizing beam aboard a crane vessel? It allows for rotation of the hook in the single mode. It is used to rigidly connect two cranes. It is used to pick up light loads. It is required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes.
What is another name for the boom of a crane? Lift Rider Jib All of the above.
What does a jib refer to on a crane? Topping lift Liftline Boom Control cab
The electrical components for each single crane are installed in its __________. turntable machinery base crane house All of the above.
What describes a tandem crane lift? Single crane hoisting 30 tons Two sets of twin cranes hoisting 120 tons Two cranes on a single pedestal hoisting 60 tons All of the above.
What describes a twin crane lift? Two sets of twin cranes hoisting 120 tons Two cranes on a single pedestal hoisting 60 tons Single crane hoisting 30 tons All of the above.
What is another description for a tandem crane lift? Twin cranes hoisting 60 tons Quad lift hoisting 120 tons Single crane hoisting 30 tons All of the above.
What is used to power modern pedestal cranes? Water Steam Hydraulics All of the above.
Most pedestal crane power is provided by __________. Independent internal combustion power units Steam units Electro-hydraulic units All of the above.
What is the advantage of the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when operating cargo? The cargo discharge can be accomplished with controlled pendulation The cranes enable the handling of heavy cargos without shoreside assistance The cargo discharge can be performed in port or at anchor All of the above.
What is/are the advantage(s) of cranes over conventional cargo booms? Simplicity of operation of the crane by its operator Cranes are able to pick up and drop loads over a greater spotting area Increased safety because the deck is clear of running and standing rigging All of the above.
What is meant by the term "luffing the boom" of a crane? Moving the boom left or right Topping or lowering the boom Stopping the boom All of the above.
What does "level-luffing" accomplish during crane operations? Less power is needed when topping the boom with a load on the hook. It maintains the height of the load above the deck. It prevents the load from swinging when the boom level is adjusted. All of the above.
What is meant by the term "level-luffing" a crane? Luffing while the load remains at a constant height Maintaining the boom at a constant height Slewing the boom left or right in a level plane None of the above
Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked? Hoist rope is not kinked The hook is centrally located over the load Multiple part lines are not twisted around each other All of the above.
What is TRUE about hoisting operations? If tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should be secured to the deck. If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning if the load is within reach. Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area. Personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they are alert and wear hard hats.
Which part of a conventional cargo gear rig provides for vertical control and positioning of a boom? Gooseneck fitting Topping lift Spider band Cargo whip
When handling cargo, the majority of cargo gear breakdowns is due to __________. extension failure of the boom topping lift failures guy failures compression bending of the boom
On your vessel, a wire rope for the cargo gear shows signs of excessive wear and must be replaced. In ordering a new wire for this 10-ton boom, what safety factor should you use? Three Five Six Seven
The wire rope used for cargo handling on board your vessel has a safe working load of eight tons. It shall be able to withstand a breaking test load of __________. 32 tons 40 tons 48 tons 64 tons
It is permissible to place an eye splice in wire rope used as cargo gear providing the splice is made using __________. three tucks with whole strands and two tucks with 1/2 the wire cut from the tucking strand three tucks with whole strands two tucks with whole strands and one tuck with one-half strand two tucks with whole strands and three tucks with half strands
What is the minimum standard for making an eye splice in a wire to be used as cargo gear? Make six tucks with each strand, removing a few wires from each strand as each additional tuck is made. Make three tucks with full strands, remove half the wires from each strand, and make two more tucks. Make four tucks with each full strand. Make four tucks in each strand, cut away every other strand, and make two more tucks with each remaining strand.
Which ending is NOT acceptable in a wire rope that is free to rotate when hoisting? Liverpool eye splice Eye formed with a pressure clamped sleeve Eye formed by clips Poured socket
Why is 6X19 class wire rope more commonly used for cargo runners than the more flexible 6X37 wire rope? It is longer. It resists abrasion better. It hugs the winch drum better. It is less expensive.
Stress on the topping lift of a swinging boom can be reduced by __________. increasing the mechanical advantage of the cargo purchase taking all slack out of the preventer rigging a back stay raising the boom
With a given load on the cargo hook, tension in a single span topping lift __________. increases as the boom's angle to the horizontal increases is at a maximum when the boom is at a 45 angle to the horizontal increases as the boom's angle to the horizontal decreases decreases as the boom's angle to the horizontal decreases
The force acting on a single cargo runner which is vertically lifting or lowering a load is greatest when __________. decelerating when lowering the load lowering the load at constant speed raising the load at constant speed decelerating when raising the load
The maximum theoretical stress that can be developed on a guy in a yard and stay rig is limited by the __________. weight of the load lifting capacity of the winch position of the guy location of the boom
If an electric cargo winch is being used to lift a draft of cargo and the engine room loses all power, which will occur? The load will fall rapidly to the deck unless the foot brake is engaged. The load will slowly lower to the deck under control of the drag of the winch motor. A pawl, forced by a spring mechanism, will engage the teeth of the bull gear and hold the load. An electromagnetic brake will hold the load where it is suspended.
Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric winch? Pneumatic brake Motor controller Hand brake Electromagnetic brake
You are using an automatic tension winch by yourself. If you get caught in the turns of the line as they lead into the gypsyhead __________. the line will part and snap back the safety cutout will stop the winch before you're injured you may be pulled into the winch and injured or killed None of the above are correct
Electric cargo winches have an overload safety device which normally cuts the current to the winch motor __________. before the safe working load of the fall is reached before the line pull reaches the rated capacity of the winch when the line pull reaches the breaking strength of the fall after torque causes line pull to exceed the rated capacity of the winch
If an attempt is made to hoist a load that exceeds the capacity of an electric winch, an overload safety device causes a circuit breaker to cut off the current to the winch motor __________. after a short build-up of torque immediately after the line pull exceeds the rated winch capacity when the line pull reaches 99% of the rated winch capacity
If a hydraulic pump on a winch accidentally stops while hoisting, the load will stay suspended because __________. a centrifugal counterweight counteracts the force of gravity. the electric pump motor will cut out the control lever will move to the stop position a check valve will close and prevent reverse circulation
Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear certificates usually maintained? At the central records center of the agency testing the cargo gear At the Coast Guard Marine Safety Office with the vessel's inspection records With the Cargo Gear Register on the ship In the Official Log
In relation to cargo gear, what does "SWL" mean? Stress, weight, load Starboard wing lift Ship's working lift Safe working load
A pelican hook __________. is used for boat falls is used for light loads only can be released while under strain is used for extra heavy loads
Which is a TRUE statement concerning the examining of cargo equipment at the time of a vessels Inspection for Certification. Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the U.S. Coast Guard. No test at this time is required. Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the American Bureau of Shipping. Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the National Cargo Bureau.
For vessels fitted with cargo gear, an initial test of the units under a proof load shall be conducted. Subsequent tests and exams of the same nature shall be carried out at what time interval? 1 year 3 years 4 years 5 years
A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition? None 10% 25% 100%
All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following EXCEPT the __________. load at which a test sample broke name of the vessel date of the test number of strands and of wires in each strand
Who certifies the safe working load of cargo booms on a vessel? The Ship's Master U.S. Coast Guard Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers American Bureau of Shipping
The organization that certifies the safe working load of cargo cranes on a vessel is the __________. U.S. Coast Guard classification society National Cargo Bureau none of the above
A sling is a device used in __________. hoisting cargo aboard a vessel hoisting personnel aboard a vessel securing a small boat to a large vessel hoisting the anchor
The latch of a safety hook __________. prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook if the strain is abruptly eased increases the strength of the hook prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook if there is a strain on the sling ring All of the above.
The best way to lift many small articles aboard your vessel is with a __________. snotter barrel hook pallet spreader
Which statement is TRUE about hooks and shackles? Shackles are stronger than hooks of the same diameter. Hooks are stronger than shackles of the same diameter. Hooks and shackles of the same diameter are of equal strength. All the above may be true, depending on the hook's or shackle's overall length.
Mousing a cargo hook with marline or small line __________. protects the hook from the sling ring increases the lifting capacity of the hook prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook All of the above.
When a two-leg sling is used to lift a load, a sling 40 feet long is better than one of 30 feet because the __________. sling will be easier to attach load can be lifted higher tension in the sling legs is less sling will be easier to remove
A spreader bar is used to __________. protect the slings increase the lifting capacity increase the lifting radius protect the upper part of a load
The best way to determine if a load is within maximum lift limits is to use __________. prior experience with similar lifts a boom angle indicator a load weight indicator material invoices for shipping weights
Regulations concerning the stowage, lashing, and securing of timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo vessels may be found in the __________. Load Line Regulations Rules and Regulations for Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels International Cargo Bureau Regulations vessel's classification society rules and regulations
Securing cargo by running timbers from an upper support down to the cargo, either vertically or at an angle, is called __________. shores toms braces dunnage
A case received for shipment is marked as shown in illustration D043DG below. Which of the following is the portion of the symbol indicated by the letter A? the consignee's marking the symbol for toxic contents a stowage sequence marking a stowage mark, showing the top of the case
To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold, you would refer to the __________. deadweight scale deck capacity plan general arrangement plan cubic capacity tables
A lot of special cargo of similar cartons, as shown in illustration D042DG below, is to be loaded. What is the weight of the consignment? 50 pounds 1100 pounds 1200 pounds 1250 pounds
Odorous cargoes are those that __________. are susceptible to damage by tainting are exceptionally dusty and leave a residue are liquid, but in containers give off fumes that may damage other cargoes
Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a(n) __________. dirty cargo toxic cargo delicate cargo odorous cargo
Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice? Stevedore damage Heating of grain Wear and tear Sublimation of chemicals
A hygroscopic cargo is defined as a cargo __________. capable of giving off moisture in the form of a liquid capable of absorbing moisture in the form of a gas that is shipped in a liquid state that will ignite in contact with water
Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as __________. contamination vaporization oxidation tainting
Damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids is known as __________. oxidation vaporization tainting contamination
Cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo is called __________. dry cargo delicate cargo immune cargo clean cargo
Which is characteristic of a "special cargo"? It is of high value or easily pilferable. The cargo gives off toxic gases when heated. It must be stowed on deck. Periodic inspection is required while in transit to prevent spoilage.
A "wet cargo" refers to __________. a cargo that will be damaged if it gets wet bulk liquids cargoes that will cause condensation liquids in containers
Cargoes that might leak from containers are known as __________. caustic cargoes dirty cargoes wet cargoes bulk cargoes
What is a wet cargo? A canned or bottled liquid such as beer A liquid cargo carried in the deep tanks A cargo particularly susceptible to damage by moisture A cargo that contains hygroscopic moisture
Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40? "Measurement" cargo "Deadweight" cargo "Heavy-lift" cargo "Full-and-down" cargo
A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a __________. weight cargo hygroscopic cargo measurement cargo stowage cargo
The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the __________. bale cubic deadweight space gross tonnage stowage area
The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and the tank top is known as the __________. gross tonnage grain cubic measurement space deadweight space
What is NOT an advantage of filler cargo? Dunnage costs are reduced. Overcarriage is reduced or eliminated. Voids in the cargo stow are filled. The hold space has maximum utilization.
The stowage factor for a cargo is based upon __________. one long metric ton one short ton one short metric ton one long ton
Which vessel is most likely to be loaded full but not down? A bulk carrier loaded with steel A break bulk vessel loaded with palletized cargo A bulk carrier loaded with heavy ore A tanker loaded with heavy grain
Overcarriage is best prevented by __________. checking the vessel's load line calculations carefully inspection of the hold at completion of discharge assuring heavy cargo is stowed low in the vessel stowing the cargo which is to be discharged last on the bottom
A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to __________. correct all defects in the ship's construction prevent delays due to quarantine restrictions ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces ensure adequate packaging of the cargo
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises out of __________. inherent vice poor stowage of cargo in a container overloading fire caused by lightning
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises from __________. lack of ventilation in transit perils of the sea an act of war an error in navigation
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises from __________. unseaworthiness when sailing quarantine delays insufficient packing mismanagement of the vessel
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises out of __________. delays due to seizure of the vessel improper stowage fire caused by fault of the carrier strikes or lockouts
Which is an example of failure to exercise due diligence? Sailing short of union manning requirements Sailing with less than 30% reserve fuel oil supply Overloading Sailing short of being full and down
What is an example of a fundamental objective of cargo stowage? Separate wet and dry cargoes into separate holds. Load so the trim does not exceed 3 feet by the stern. Make maximum use of existing dunnage. Prevent overcarriage by block stowage.
"Block stowage" means __________. using separation cloths to separate different kinds of cargo using port marks on the cargo having the cargo on pallets stowing all the cargo for a port in the same area
The temperature at which water vapor in an atmosphere condenses to a liquid is known as which of the following? the dew point the flash point the bubble point equilibrium
When a deck cargo is secured with chain or wire lashings and grab (pear) links, which statement is FALSE? The lashings should be inspected each day and any slack taken up. The amount of take-up is limited by the length of the turnbuckle. The turnbuckle should be secured with a stick or lock nuts. At the grab (pear) link, the slack end of chain should be led back and secured to the chain above the link.
Which material should NOT be used to secure cargo on deck for a voyage? Steel chain Fiber rope Steel strapping Wire rope
In the stowage of deck cargo, "cribbing" is __________. placed on deck to support the cargo separation pieces used to keep cylinders upright and steady shims for stowing baled cargo nets placed across the hatch opening to keep the cargo from falling in the hatch
"Cribbing" is __________. cardboard separation pieces placed between deck loads to prevent chafing a crate in which a deck cargo is packaged the chains and shackles used to secure a deck cargo wooden blocks or dunnage placed between a deck load and the deck
A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would be most suitable for main deck stowage of vehicles? On top of the aftermost hatch on the vessel Beside the hatches, forward of the midships house On top of No.1 hatch On top of the hatch immediately aft of the midships house
What does it mean to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo? weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the tween-decks package the cargo in wooden crates so it will not damage the deck distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore-and-aft planks on the main deck
It is possible, and sometimes necessary, to strengthen the deck of a vessel for carriage of deck cargo by __________. erecting vertical pillars under the deck to support the cargo welding steel "feet" to the deck, on which the cargo is placed building a stage on which to place the cargo placing bunker on the deck
Which cargoes require strips of common building lathe as dunnage in order to carry away heat generated by the cargo? Paper products packaged in rolls Refrigerated fruit that is ripening Canned soups packaged in crates Cardboard cartons of shoes
Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of the bilge upward. The purpose of these cargo battens is __________. to provide fittings to which cargo lashings may be secured for securing a snatch block when snaking cargo into the wings of the hold to prevent cargo from coming in contact with the vessel's frames or shell plating to support the dunnage floors which are laid down between tiers of cargo
What is the main purpose of dunnage? To provide ventilation and drainage for cargo To secure the tarpaulins in place To act as ballast for light vessels To support weakened bulkheads
A shore is a piece of securing dunnage that __________. is placed on the deck under the cargo to distribute its weight evenly runs from a low supporting level up to the cargo at an angle is run horizontally from a support to the cargo is also known as a "distance piece"
Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by __________. inherent vice tainting hygroscopic absorption ship's sweat
In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the reefer space has been precooled for over twenty-four hours. Loading may begin when the space has been cooled to a temperature between __________. -10F (-23C) and +10F (-12C) 12F (-11C) and 20F (-7C) 28F (-2C) and 40F ( 4C) 42F (6C) and 55F (13C)
A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper methods of stowage were utilized, can be conducted by the __________. American Bureau of Shipping National Cargo Bureau U.S. Coast Guard Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Which organization would conduct a survey of the insulation in a reefer compartment prior to loading cargo? OSHA American Bureau of Shipping U.S. Customs Service National Cargo Bureau
If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo, it will most likely cause __________. malfunction of the refrigeration equipment contamination of the insulation in the space mold to develop on commodities All of the above.
If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice that the fruit is beginning to mold, you should __________. discharge CO2 into the compartment after loading refuse to carry the cargo write up exceptions on the cargo carry the cargo at a cooler temperature than originally planned
When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected at the discharge port is __________. leaks in the ship's refrigeration system carriage at the wrong temperature improper pre-cooling of the cargo spaces improper cleaning of the cargo spaces
Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo into separate holds? Contamination of a food cargo by an odorous cargo Contamination of a clean cargo by a dirty cargo Contamination of dry cargo by a wet cargo Overcarriage, overstowage, and short landing
Segregation of cargoes refers to __________. listing the cargoes in order of their flammability separating cargoes so that the inherent characteristics of one cannot damage the other separating cargoes by destination classifying cargoes according to their toxicity
Certain cargoes must be segregated because of their __________. inherent characteristics destination weight danger to humans
Keeping certain cargoes separated because of their inherent characteristics is known as __________. overstowage segregation spot loading cargo typing
Spontaneous heating of coal rapidly accelerates at the approximate minimum temperature of __________. 100F 111F 88F 119F
While loading cargo, a white trimming light on the starboard side comes on. This indicates that __________. the vessel has a list of about 1` to starboard the chutes should be directed to the starboard side a severe list to starboard has developed and all loading should cease the chutes in No. 1 hold should be directed to the starboard side
Before loading bulk grain, bilge wells must be covered to __________. permit rapid flow of water to the bilge wells prevent cargo sifting into the bilge wells prevent oil, water, or other liquid from reaching the cargo add strength to the bilge well strainer
The certificate of loading required by each vessel carrying grain in bulk is issued by the __________. owner or charterer of the vessel shipper of the cargo National Cargo Bureau American Bureau of Shipping
What is usually NOT required in preparing a hold for reception of a bulk grain cargo? Remove residue of previous cargo. Spray or fumigate any insect colonies. Remove loose rust and scale. Steam clean areas obstructed by structural members.
When loading a cargo of taconite, proper sequencing of loading by hatch number is necessary to __________. control list prevent excessive longitudinal stresses provide the proper trim prevent negative stability from developing
A list signal of one white light indicates that the vessel is __________. listing about 1 to the side the light is displayed on listing over 5 with the light displayed on the high side on an even keel listing, and the chutes should be directed to the side where the light is displayed
Which statement about shipping coal is TRUE? Anthracite will generate more methane than bituminous coal. Coal should not be shipped while wet. Coal should be surface ventilated to remove methane gas. The methane gas generated by coal will react with moisture on the ship's structure and accelerate corrosion.
What is NOT a problem when carrying coal? The requirement for through-ventilation The corrosion some types of coal will cause to the ship Generation of methane gas Spontaneous heating
While loading a cargo of grain, your vessel develops a list to starboard. This will be corrected by __________. the list man changing the discharge location of the chutes allowing the grain to level itself as the hold fills to the spar deck level trimming the final loading cone by hand the compensating tanks on the high side
Atmospheres laden with coal dust or grain dust caused by loading these cargoes __________. may be explosive in some concentrations are subject to spontaneous combustion require loading operations to be shut down until the atmosphere clears are toxic to human life
Which statement about the carriage of coal is true? Freshly worked coal is more dangerous than weathered coal. Wet coal is more liable to spontaneous heating than dry coal. Coal absorbs nitrogen from the air which reacts with methane and causes spontaneous heating. Most problems with spontaneous combustion will occur within 72 hours of loading and after that the risk decreases.
Which statement about the ventilation of bulk coal is TRUE? Coal should not be ventilated; all oxygen should be excluded from the cargo. Coal should be through-ventilated to remove methane and reduce the heat of spontaneous combustion. Coal should be surface ventilated only. Coal should be ventilated only if temperatures in the center of the cargo exceed 125F.
When considering a vessel's stability, which spaces in a general cargo vessel are the best locations for the carriage of bulk grain? Lower holds Lower holds at the ends of the vessel Deep tanks 'Tween-decks
Ship's officers should check every cargo compartment after it is filled with bulk grain to ensure __________. all void spaces are filled the correct grade of cargo has been loaded the heavier grade is in the lower hold all lighting circuits are energized
Bulk cargo refers to __________. homogeneous cargo not enclosed in a container cargo which occupies a large volume of space cargo which is very dense cargo which requires refrigeration
When carrying a full or nearly full load of bulk ore in a general cargo type vessel which has engine spaces amidships, the cargo in each hold should be trimmed so that the bulk of the cargo lies __________. along the centerline toward the after bulkhead of the forward holds and the forward bulkhead of the after holds toward the forward bulkhead of the forward holds and toward the after bulkhead of the after holds toward the after bulkhead of all holds
Which statement is correct concerning the carriage of coal in bulk? Dunnage should be placed against ship's sides and around stanchions. Coal should be vented with surface ventilation only. Through ventilation, as well as surface ventilation, should be provided whenever possible. Because of its inherent vice, coal should not be loaded wet.
Prior to being able to sail, each vessel that carries grain in bulk must have a certificate of loading issued by the __________. National Cargo Bureau American Bureau of Shipping U.S. Salvage Lloyds of London
Who would normally certify that all preparations have been made and all regulations observed prior to loading a cargo of bulk grain? American Bureau of Shipping Master of the vessel National Cargo Bureau U.S. Coast Guard
Which agency issues a certificate of loading that is evidence that the rules and regulations concerning bulk grain cargoes have been observed? Public Health Service American Bureau of Shipping Department of Agriculture National Cargo Bureau
When referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term "flow state" __________. relates to the suitability of loading a cargo by flowing down inclined chutes refers to the saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where it acts as a liquid relates to the minimum granule size of a particular product where it will flow like a liquid at an angle of 30 designates the state of a commodity when the ship is heeled past the angle of repose
A Great Lakes bulk ore vessel would use an "Iron Deckhand" to assist in __________. making the vessel fast to a dock steering the vessel unloading bulk cargo removing hatch covers
What is the meaning of the term tare weight? Weight of a container Pounds of force necessary to damage a container Total weight of a container and contents Weight of the contents of a container
You are on a container vessel. What concerning the handling and stowage of containerized hazardous materials is TRUE? A portable cargo tank containing a cryogenic liquid must be shipped on deck unless forced ventilation is provided to the tween-decks. A portable cargo tank of a flammable, cryogenic liquid may not be in transit for a period exceeding its marked rated holding time unless the liquid is inhibited. Open-bed containers may be used to transport hazardous materials if the cargo is properly secured. A container loaded with packages of tear gas would display a placard reading "Irritant."
A high cube container is designed specifically to __________. protect fragile cargoes stow cargoes with concentrated weights such as machinery carry low density cargoes carry cargoes of very low stowage factors
How long is the standard container used to measure equivalent units? 10 feet (3 meters) 20 feet (6 meters) 35 feet (11 meters) 40 feet (12 meters)
You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit? Discharge a cylinder of nitrogen into the container Spread ice over the top layer and in any voids within the container Seal any ventilation openings and add dry ice Shade the container and periodically hose it down
Which statement concerning the carriage of containers is TRUE? With tiered containers, a 40-foot container may be stowed on top of two 20-foot containers. When stowed on deck of a break bulk ship, the bottom of the container must be evenly supported throughout. The Chief Mate and Master of a container ship should have the proposed stowage plan ready for the stevedore upon arrival in port. Deck load calculations must take into account the square footage of the entire container bottom.
When loading a container vessel, the operation is basically that of vertical loading. The important factors to be considered when loading containers are the port of discharge, and which of the following? weight, and refrigeration crushability, and inherent vice sweat, and weight available dunnage, and chocking
Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, the MOST important factor while loading containers is the __________. list of the vessel size of the shoreside crane weight of the container contents of the container
When loading containers into the cell guides in the hold of a container ship, which statement is TRUE? The container must be locked into the cell guide. Containers must have vertical lashings if they do not have twist lock securing. No further securing is usually required. All containers must have vertical and horizontal lashings.
What is NOT an advantage of containership operations over conventional break-bulk operations? Flexibility of operation Greater operational safety Lower stevedoring costs Reduction of cargo damage
Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with twist locks, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height? Lashings are always required Two containers One container Three containers
The lashings on a stack of containers with interlocking fittings restrain the forces that cause __________. buckling toppling crushing racking
Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with non-locking fittings, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height? Lashings are always required One container Two containers Three containers
Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE? In general, containerized hygroscopic cargoes are the only ones subject to sweat damage. Sweat damage in containers is unusual due to the small enclosed volume of air. Sweat damage is not a problem except in insulated and refrigerated containers. Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents physically protected against sweat damage.
A high cube container would most likely be used to stow __________. household appliances heavy industrial machinery fragile cargoes dense bulk cargoes
A half-height container is used __________. to double the stowage capacity of the vessel when stowage space is limited to carry cargoes of low density to carry cargoes such as steel products or drums
What is NOT a securing system used on a containership? Stacking system Buttress system Lashing system Locking system
With the buttress securing system, containers of different heights must be stowed __________. on the bottom tier on deck on the top tier in the hold next to the buttress tower
What provides the majority of strength to an aluminum-sided container? Framework, primarily the corner posts Corner fittings Framework and siding acting as a girder Aluminum side and end panels
The weight of the container and its contents is supported on deck by what part(s)? Bottom flooring, side, and end rails Bottom, side, and end rails Bottom flooring only Four lower corner castings
The securing systems for containers were developed to prevent container movement during which ship motion? Roll Yaw Sway Surge
What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing containers? Ties a container stack to the deck Restrains the container against horizontal motion Restrains racking loads Ties a container to the container below it
Which statement concerning the lashings of containers with solid bar or wire rope lashings is TRUE? Solid bars should be used for lashing the first tier only, with wire lashings on the higher tier(s). Stack heights may be increased when using a solid bar lashing. Stack heights should be reduced when using a solid bar lashing. Stack weights should be less when using a solid bar lashing as compared to a wire lashing.
On the fully containerized ship, approximately one-third or more of the cargo is on deck above the rolling center. Top stowed containers are subject to __________. accelerations less than on conventional vessels accelerations the same as on conventional vessels accelerations greater than on conventional vessels no accelerations
When commencing cargo operations on a container ship, one cell at a hatch is generally discharged completely (to the bottom of the ship) before removing any containers from the adjoining cells to __________. allow longshoremen easy access to the hatch improve stability during cargo operations remove an existing list that would slow down cargo operations initiate loading in conjunction with unloading at the hatch
You are on a containership. Which statement about the stowage of hazardous materials in containers is TRUE? A refrigerated container with a fuel tank containing a flammable liquid must be stowed on deck. All packages within a container must be marked "This End Up" to indicate the correct stowage. Packages of liquids within a container should be stowed on top of packages of solids to prevent crushing. The containers provide automatic segregation of hazardous materials except for class A explosives.
You are on a containership. The cargo includes a container of small arms ammunition, a container of lead-acid storage batteries and a container of methyl acetylene bottles. Which statement is TRUE? The ammunition must be separated from the methyl acetylene by at least one hold. The storage batteries must be stowed on deck away from the ammunition. The storage batteries must be at least ten horizontal feet away from the methyl acetylene. No separation is required because freight containers are exempted.
A sling is rigged on a piece of pipe weighing 1000 lbs. The angle between the sling legs is 140 and the legs are of equal length. What stress is exerted on each sling leg when the pipe is lifted? 1318 lbs. 1366 lbs. 1414 lbs. 1462 lbs.
The lower hold of your vessel has a bale capacity of 60,000 cubic feet. How many tons of cotton in bales having a stowage factor of 85 can be stowed in the lower hold, assuming a broken stowage factor of 20%? 141 565 706 847
The lower hold of your vessel has a bale cubic of 52,000 cu. ft. You will load a cargo of cases, each weighing 380 lbs. and measuring 3 ft. x 2 ft. x 2 ft. The estimated broken stowage is 15%. How many tons of cases can be loaded? 137 tons 161 tons 625 tons 969 tons
The amount of strain on each runner of a married fall system lifting 2000 lbs. when the angle made by the legs is 90 would be __________. 1000 lbs. 1154 lbs. 1414 lbs. 2000 lbs.
A lot of special cargo as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be loaded aboard your vessel. You examine one of the cartons of the lot shown. Assuming no broken stowage what is the total cubic space the consignment will occupy? 51 cubic feet (1.5 cubic meters) 58 cubic feet (1.7 cubic meters) 336 cubic feet (10 cubic meters) 700 cubic feet (21 cubic meters)
Ten triangular piles of piping on the pier are to be loaded - each pile has a 20 foot base, is 15 feet high and 30 feet long. If the breadth of the hold is 60 feet and the piping is to be stowed fore and aft in a 30 foot space, how high will it stow? 16.6 feet 25.0 feet 50.0 feet 75.0 feet
The deck load capacity of a compartment into which you intend to load a cargo of soft brick is 380 lbs. per sq. ft. The stowage factor of the brick is 21.3. Disregarding broken stowage, what is the maximum height the brick may be stacked without endangering the structure? 1.7 feet 3.6 feet 5.0 feet 7.1 feet
A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below. Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". What is the total cubic capacity the entire consignment will occupy if you assume 10% broken stowage? 779 cubic feet (22 cubic meters) 857 cubic feet (24 cubic meters) 1047 cubic feet (30 cubic meters) 112,125 cubic feet (3173 cubic meters)
A lot of special cargo of similar cartons as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be loaded. What is the total cubic capacity the consignment will occupy if you assume 10% broken stowage? 51 cubic feet (1.5 cubic meters) 58 cubic feet (1.7 cubic meters) 65 cubic feet (2.0 cubic meters) 336 cubic feet (10 cubic meters)
You are lifting a 3 ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60 to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom. 1 1/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 3/4 inch 2 inch
A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below. Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". Ignoring broken stowage what is the total cubic capacity the entire consignment will occupy? 779 cubic feet (22 cubic meters) 992 cubic feet (28 cubic meters) 112,125 cubic feet (3173 cubic meters) 1,047 cubic feet (30 cubic meters)
Twenty-five hundred (2500) tons of iron ore with a stowage factor of 17 is stowed in a cargo hold. The dimensions of the hold are 55 feet long and 45 feet wide and 35 feet high. What is the height of the center of gravity of the ore above the bottom of the hold? 7.8 feet 8.6 feet 17.1 feet 34.6 feet
You are loading a cargo of cases into a hold which has a bale cubic of 44,000. The cargo consists of cases measuring 4 ft by 2 ft by 1.5 ft. Estimated broken stowage is 15%. What is the maximum number of cases which can be stowed in the hold? 3096 3116 3136 3156
A vessel has a deadweight carrying capacity of 10,500 tons. Fuel, water, and stores require 1500 tons. The cubic capacity is 500,000 cubic feet. Which cargo will put her full and down? Rolls of barbed wire, SF 55.5 Slabs of zinc, SF 7.1 Barrels of tallow, SF 66.8 Bundles of rubber, SF 140.2
You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 20 to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom. 1 3/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 3/4 inch 1 7/8 inch
If two falls are attached to lift a one-ton load, what angle between the falls will result in the stress on each fall being equal to the load being lifted? 60 75 120 150
You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60 to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom? 1 inch 1 3/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 7/8 inch
You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 100 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 72,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage? 493 577 602 648
Two falls are supporting a 1.5 ton load. The port fall is at an angle of 40 from the vertical. The starboard fall is at an angle of 70 from the vertical. What is the stress on each fall? Port 1.5 tons, starboard 1.0 tons Port 1.5 tons, starboard 1.5 tons Port 1.7 tons, starboard 1.3 tons Port 1.7 tons, starboard 2.0 tons
You are lifting a 3-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle 20 to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom. 1 3/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 5/8 inch 1 3/4 inch
You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 96 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 84,000. How many tons of wool can be stowed in the compartment? 577 602 654 875
You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 100 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 62,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage? 520 654 558 620
You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold which has 24,000 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2-1/2 feet by 4 feet and weights 448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded? 190 233 204 280
You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold which has 24,400 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2 feet by 4 feet and weighs 448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded? 54 259 207 351
There is a large shipment of case goods available to be loaded on your vessel. You are to load as many tons as possible in a hold which has 32,300 cubic feet left unfilled by cargo. Each case measures 2-feet high by 2-feet wide by 4-feet long and weighs 500 pounds. If you allow a broken stowage allowance of 10% of the 32,300 feet, what is the nearest whole number of tons which may be loaded? 324 tons 360 tons 363 tons 406 tons
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene? Phenols, cresols Amides Alcohols, glycols Nitric acid
You are planning the stowage of two incompatible products on your multiple-product tankship. What will NOT provide the minimum required segregation? Empty tank Solid (non-intercostal) bulkhead Tank containing a third cargo compatible with the other two Diagonally adjacent tanks
You are on a multiple product tankship and carrying methyl acrylate, diethanolamine, and triethylamine. Which statement is TRUE? The heating coils to the cargo tank loaded with methyl acrylate must be blanked off. Valve components made of aluminum, copper, or zinc may not be in contact with the cargoes. Each crew member working on deck must have an emergency escape breathing apparatus. Methyl acrylate may be loaded in a tank adjacent to diethanolamine but not triethylamine.
You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE? A tank of carbon disulfide may be used to separate a tank of pyridine from a tank of diisopropylamine. Pyridine and diisopropylamine may be carried in tanks having a common header vent. Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1 and 2 wing tanks. Diisopropylamine must be separated from carbon disulfide by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty tanks, etc.)
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker. The loading plan includes cargoes of diethylenetriamine and formamide. Which statement concerning the stowage of these cargoes is TRUE? The cargoes must have individual venting systems. The valves in common piping systems must be chained closed and locked. They must be separated by a void space or empty tank. The minimum segregation required is a single bulkhead.
You are carrying cargoes of crotonaldehyde, phosphoric acid, and morpholine on your multiple-product tankship. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Each of the cargoes must be segregated from the other by at least two barriers. Aluminum, copper, and zinc are prohibited in all valve parts in contact with these cargoes. The minimum protective clothing required for taking samples of phosphoric acid is goggles or a face shield. The required warning sign must have the legend "cancer hazard" added to it.
You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is true? A tank of diisopropylamine may be used to separate a tank of pyridine from a tank of carbon disulfide. Pyridine and diisopropylamine may not be carried in tanks having a common header vent. Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1 and 2 wing tanks. Pyridine must be separated from carbon disulfide by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty tanks, etc.).
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of ethanolamine, methyl acrylate, and glycerine. Which statement is true? Methyl acrylate and ethanolamine are compatible but both must be segregated from glycerine. Glycerine may be stowed adjacent to methyl acrylate but must be segregated from ethanolamine. Glycerine is compatible with both of the other cargoes. All of these cargoes are mutually incompatible.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of butyric acid, propylene oxide, and octyl alcohol. Which statement is true? All of these cargoes are compatible. Butyric acid is incompatible with octyl alcohol but not propylene oxide. Propylene oxide may not be stowed in a tank adjacent to butyric acid. Octyl alcohol is incompatible with both butyric acid and propylene oxide.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of allyl alcohol, benzene, and propanolamine. Which of the following is true? All of these cargoes are mutually compatible. Propanolamine is compatible with allyl alcohol but must be segregated from benzene. Benzene may not be carried in a tank adjacent to either of the other two cargoes. Allyl alcohol is incompatible with propanolamine but both are compatible with benzene.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of isophorone, ethylenediamine, and creosote. Which of the following is TRUE? Isophorone is incompatible with ethylenediamine but may be stowed adjacent to creosote. All of these cargoes are incompatible. Ethylenediamine is compatible with isophorone but both are incompatible with creosote. All of these cargoes are compatible.
You are on a multiple-product tankship and scheduled to load a cargo classed as an aromatic amine. This cargo is incompatible with cargoes classed as __________. phenols organic anhydrides esters ketones
Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin? Sulfuric acid Isocyanates Ammonia Nitric acid
Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes? Pump rooms Cofferdams Enclosed deck spaces Navigation spaces
Which statement is NOT true concerning the stowage of class 1 explosives? Class 1.4 explosives may not be stowed in the same hold with class 6.1 poisons. Class 1.4 explosives must be "separated from" a stow of class 5.1 oxidizing materials. Class 1.4 explosives must be "separated from" a stow of class 8 corrosive materials. Class 1.1 explosives may be stowed with class 9 dangerous substances
You receive a package, for shipment aboard your vessel, containing Class 1 explosives. The package is damp, moldy and stained. You must __________. repair or replace the packaging before stowage note an exception on the Bill of Lading seek the shipper's advice with regard to withdrawal, repair, or replacement have the U.S.C.G. Captain of the Port approve the shipment
You receive a package, for shipment aboard your vessel, containing Class 1 explosives. The package is damp, moldy and stained. You must __________. replace the packaging material before stowage seek the approval of the USCG Captain of the Port refuse to accept the package note the exception(s) on the Bill of Lading
You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives and need to construct a portable magazine. The magazine MUST __________. have a hinged cover be fastened with nails or screws be made of metal be elevated with skids 10cm (3.9 inches) above the deck
You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE? A portable container of a flammable liquid used as fuel for portable auxiliary equipment must be stowed in a paint locker or at a designated open location. Acetylene may be in a ship's storeroom in quantities not exceeding 6000 cubic feet. Stores such as line, rags, mattresses, linens, etc. must be treated to be fire retardant. Stores certified for use on uninspected vessels may be identified by the certification number used by Underwriter's Laboratories.
You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE? Cylinders containing compressed gasses must be constructed and tested in accordance with the Bureau of Standards. All distress flares when received must be stored in the portable magazine chest. All stores of line, rags, linens and other similar type stores must be certified by UL as being fire retardant. Up to five gallons of a flammable liquid may be stowed in the engine room.
You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE? Replacement CO2 cylinders for the fixed fire fighting system must have been tested within 8 years of receipt. Cartridges for the line throwing appliance must be stored in the portable magazine chest after receipt. The label of a hazardous ships' store must include instructions for safe stowage. All flammable liquids must be stowed in the paint locker or specially constructed integral tanks.
You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE? Aerosol cans of engine starting fluid must be stowed in either the paint locker or portable magazine after receipt. Drugs and medicines must be stowed in accordance with the directives of the Food and Drug Administration. Properly labeled consumer commodities need not be labeled in accordance with Title 46 CFR. Flammable ship's stores must be certified for use on inspected vessels by Underwriter's Laboratories.
On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with a cargo of a non-hygroscopic nature in the holds, which is TRUE? Danger of heavy ship sweat exists; constant and vigorous ventilation is required. There is little danger of ship's sweat, slight possibility of cargo sweat; moderate ventilation is needed. The possibility of any sweat problem, either cargo or ship, is remote. There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if outside air is introduced by ventilation.
Your vessel is going from a warm climate to a cold climate with a hygroscopic cargo. Which statement is TRUE? There is little danger of any sweat problem. You must ventilate constantly and vigorously to combat ship sweat. There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if you ventilate. You should ventilate; there is little danger of ship sweat, but a possibility of cargo sweat.
Your vessel is loaded with non-hygroscopic cargoes and is going from a cold to a warm climate. You should __________. start the exhaust blowers ventilate the cargo holds not ventilate the cargo holds start the intake blowers
Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated when __________. the outside dew point is 60F (16C) and the cargo temperature is 54F (12C) the dew point of the outside air is greater than the dew point of the air in the hold the dew point of the air in the hold is very low going from a warm to a cold climate
Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing cased machinery when the __________. dew point of the outside air is lower than the temperature of the cargo air temperature of the hold is higher than the temperature of the outside air dew point of the hold is higher than the temperature of the ship's skin outside air temperature is colder than the temperature of the cargo
Sweat damage in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons will occur when the __________. air temperature is lower than the temperature of the cargo air temperature is higher than the temperature of the cargo dew point is higher than the temperature of the cargo dew point is lower than the temperature of the cargo
The moisture equilibrium chart can be used to determine the __________. absolute moisture content of the air surrounding a hygroscopic cargo when moisture equilibrium exists enthalpy of the air surrounding a hydroscopic cargo which is in moisture equilibrium with the cargo dew point temperature that the air surrounding a hygroscopic commodity will have when in moisture equilibrium with that commodity temperature at which moisture equilibrium will occur in a cargo hold containing a hygroscopic cargo
Which data can NOT be found on a moisture equilibrium chart? Moisture content Wet bulb temperature Vapor pressure Dry bulb temperature
When the dew point of the outside air is higher than the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, you should __________. not ventilate the cargo holds energize the exhaust blowers energize the intake blowers ventilate the cargo holds
When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, you should __________. secure all ventilation shut down the intake blowers shut down the exhaust blowers ventilate the cargo holds
Which factor is MOST important in preventing sweat damage within a cargo hold? Dew point of the outside atmosphere Outside air temperature Temperature of the cargo Dew point of the cargo hold
Given a dry bulb temperature of 78F and wet bulb temperature of 66.5F, the dew point is __________. illustration D008DG 47.0F 51.5F 59.0F 70.0F
A heated bulkhead has the effect on a hygroscopic commodity of __________. lowering the dew point of the air raising the vapor pressure of the commodity causing moisture to accumulate against the bulkhead lowering the vapor pressure of the commodity
Using the available references determine the dew point when the dry bulb temperature is 74F (23C) and the wet bulb temperature is 60F (16C). illustration D008DG 14F 20F 28F 50F
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 55F (13C) and the wet bulb is 50F (10C), what is the relative humidity? illustration D008DG 55 (%) 70 (%) 75 (%) 82 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 58 and the wet bulb temperature is 53, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 56 (%) 61 (%) 66 (%) 72 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 68and the wet bulb temperature is 65, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 66 (%) 74 (%) 85 (%) 90 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 76 and the wet bulb temperature is 59, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 35 (%) 47 (%) 76 (%) 79 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 76 and the wet bulb temperature is 58, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 31 (%) 47 (%) 61 (%) 76 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 77 and the wet bulb temperature is 69, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 67 (%) 70 (%) 77 (%) 81 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 80F (27C) and the wet bulb temperature is 70F (21C), what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 45 (%) 52 (%) 61 (%) 65 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 84 and the wet bulb temperature is 81, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 71 (%) 79 (%) 81 (%) 88 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 85and the wet bulb temperature is 73, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 42 (%) 56 (%) 67 (%) 85 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 91 and the wet bulb temperature is 87, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 79 (%) 85 (%) 91 (%) 98 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 92 and the wet bulb temperature is 85, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 75 (%) 81 (%) 84 (%) 88 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 98and the wet bulb temperature is 87, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 79 (%) 84 (%) 64 (%) 87 (%)
Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by U.S. regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces? crew lounge Laundries Washrooms none of the above
According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG tanks are located __________. above the weather deck in the expansion trunk of each tank in the ends of each tank there are no requirements in the regulation
According to the regulations, to prevent excessive pressure buildup in cargo tanks containing LFG, they are fitted with __________. pressure vacuum relief valves excess flow valves flame screens safety relief valves
A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in what state? completely full completely empty low in the vessel slack
Ullage measurements are taken from the top of the liquid to which of the following points? the base of the expansion trunk a line scribed within the ullage port an above-deck datum, usually the top of the ullage hole the base of the ullage port
Where are ullages measured from? the tank ceiling the thievage mark an above deck datum the tank top bushing
The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following? allowing the escape of flammable vapors dissipating the heat of an external flame absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank
U.S. regulations define several acceptable means of closure for ballast and fuel oil tank vents. Which of the following is an example of acceptable means? manually operated ball check valve automatically operated hinged closure permanently installed canvas hood corrosion resistant wire screen
The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the U.S. regulations as ballast water introduced into which of the following? oily water separator for segregation fuel settling tank for segregation from lighter fluids isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), what is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling? 6 bolts 8 bolts 2 bolts 4 bolts
U.S. regulations require that all oil spills in United States waters be reported immediately. Who is this report made to? state pollution board U.S. Coast Guard Corps of Engineers local port authority
Which of the following describes heavy fuel oils when they have been spilled? they are not a real threat to marine life they are more harmful to sea life than lighter oils they are easier to clean up than lighter refined oils they are less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following does not qualify as a discharge of oil? Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system. Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose. Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side. Discharging oil into the sea for pollution research.
What term is not considered a "discharge" as it applies to the U.S. pollution regulations? spilling a harmful substance pumping a harmful substance sampling a harmful substance leaking diesel fuel oil
Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference? Identity of the product to be transferred Estimated time of finishing cargo Details of transferring and receiving systems Emergency shutdown procedures
If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during the fuel transfer operations, which action should you take FIRST? Close the valves at the manifold. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility. Sound the general alarm. Shut down the operation.
What causes the most frequent incidents of pollution during tanker operations? groundings loading and discharging collisions routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)? 1 2 3 4
Who enforces the U.S. pollution regulations that apply to ships? Corps of Engineers Port Authority U.S. Coast Guard State Pollution Board
Which of the following represents an emergency procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by U.S. regulations? Self-closing emergency disconnect fitting Pressure-sensitive oil pressure controller Quick-acting power actuated valve Manually-operated quick-closing valve
Which of the following describes the depth of a product in a tank? Innage Outage Thievage Ullage
What does the MARPOL 73/78 convention deal with? International Marine Organization Gas Carrier Code International Convention of Safety of Life at Sea International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships International Convention on Standards of Training Certification and Watchkeeping
It would be prudent to perform which of the following actions prior to the commencement of bunkering? close the lids on the vents plug the sounding pipes plug the vents plug the scuppers
In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________. you first start to receive fuel hoses are being blown down hoses are being disconnected final topping off is occurring
Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, which of the following action should you perform? place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers notify the terminal superintendent replace the hose repair the hose with a patch
Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. What action should you take before you resume pumping? repair the hose with a patch place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers notify the terminal superintendent replace the hose
When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel, what should your first action be? determine whether your vessel is the source stop loading notify the terminal superintendent notify the senior deck officer
While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST? Search the vessel for leaks Notify the Coast Guard Notify terminal superintendent Stop loading
U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who must be in attendance at this meeting? terminal supervisor, Master of the vessel and the Coast Guard master of the vessel and the terminal superintendent master and chief engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations at the facility
U.S. regulations state that a person may not transfer oil or hazardous materials to or from a vessel unless each person-in-charge has signed which of the following documents? valve inspection record machinery log oil record book Declaration of Inspection
For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of the following choices will accomplish this task as required by 33 CFR? a signal-board on the bridge a loudhailer from the vessel bridge a specific sequence of lights a pneumatically or mechanically operated device
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG? Make sure the raked ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped. Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good condition. Report any leakage of cargo. Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer? To designate smoking areas To indicate any health risk if applicable To indicate if the cargo is a marine pollutant To keep visitors away from the barge
According to 46 CFR there are specific alarms that are required to be tested prior to cargo transfer. Which of the following items does not require testing? quick closing loading valves high level visual alarm high level audible alarm low liquid level alarms
If a repair team is to enter a confined space for repair work, what minimum level of oxygen should be present? 18 (%) 19 (%) 20 (%) 21 (%)
Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel? The manager of the shore facility The designated person in charge The US Coast Guard. The American Bureau of Sipping.
The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer? The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping The person in charge on the vessel The person in charge at the facility Both persons in charge
U.S. regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following conditions is met? a representative sample has been taken from the oil being received an oil containment boom is available for immediate use oil residue has been drained from all hoses all parts of the transfer system have been properly lined up
To insure proper seating when closing a valve on a tank, what position should the valve be in? set up as tight as possible by hand closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again set up tight using a valve wrench closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted
What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air? lower explosive limit threshold limit value flash point fire point
Which statement is TRUE concerning insulating flanges? After the insulating flange is installed, hot work may be performed on deck. Switching off a cathodic protection system may be substituted for using an insulating flange The measured resistance value after installation should be less than 1,000 ohms. They should be inspected and tested periodically to ensure that the insulation is clean and in good condition.
When is it acceptable to use power-driven or manually-operated spark producing devices in the pump room, where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are involved? when all cargo tanks have been inerted when the vessel is gas free when all cargo tanks are empty when the compartment itself is gas free
Which of the following does not require cargo transfer operations on a tank vessel to be stopped? a large, fresh oil spill is discovered immediately adjacent to the side of the tanker there is an electrical storm in the vicinity a tug comes alongside while the tanker is loading grade D and E cargoes there is a fire on the dock or on a nearby vessel
You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo? A green light visible all around the horizon A flashing yellow light A red light visible all around the horizon An illuminated red and yellow caution flag
Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE? They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps. They can be used only when the compartment is gas free. The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire. No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed.
U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil or LNG during transfer operations. The emergency means may be which of the following? self-closing automatic disconnect fitting manually-operated quick-closing valve emergency pump control on the cargo deck automatic pressure-sensitive oil flow regulator
Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators? They will detect a lack of oxygen. They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen. One sample of air is adequate to test a tank. They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion.
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following is a requirement of the ventilation system of a pump room on a tanker? the regulation requires that the ventilation be non-spark producing the regulation only requires the installation of an exhaust fan the regulation makes exception for the ventilation requirements if a SCBA is mounted at the entrance the regulation only applies to vessels built prior to Jan 1, 1963
What is the inert gas system on a tanker used for? dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable vapors prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks
According to U.S. regulations, tank vessels are required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device does which of the following? shuts off the main propulsion plant shuts off the firefighting foam systems stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel secures electrical power to all motors
Who is responsible for the final inspection ensuring a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and has fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo? tankerman or person in charge of loading charterer through the Master of the towing vessel owner of the barge terminal operator
Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, what position must the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at? one meter from the deck in the vent riser at the top of the tank immediately above the level of the oil
What are the flammable limits for motor gasoline? 2.5% to 12.8% mixture in air 5.3% to 7% mixture in air 0.9% to 5.9% mixture in air 1.4% to 7.6% mixture in air
Combustion can occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system. Which of the following will not aid in this combustion process? oxygen ignition nitrogen fuel
What are the primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling Liquefied Gas? cargo tanks and piping strong enough to withstand the pressure a system of cargo tanks and piping free from leaks cargo tanks and piping located or protected to minimize physical damage All of the above.
Which of the following actions is not considered to have the potential for generating static electricity? discharging a fire hose on deck spraying or splashing of petroleum settling of solids or water in petroleum flow of petroleum through pipes
What is the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present called? lower explosive limit autoignition temperature flash point fire point
Where would be the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker? at the main deck manifold in the pumproom at the vent header in the midships house
Which of the following is the chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers? kerosene cargo gasoline cargo JP4 cargo oil soaked rags or rubbish
U.S. regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by which of the following? areas equipped with power ventilation gas tight bulkheads cofferdams empty cargo spaces
What is the best method for extinguishing a fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas? interrupting the chain reaction cooling the gas below the ignition point stopping the flow of gas cutting off the supply of oxygen
Which of the following is a safety consideration when dealing with Liquefied Gas? it's caustic it's cold it's corrosive it's carcogenic
With reference to Liquefied Gas operations, what does the term "rollover" used to describe? vapor pockets forming at the bottom of a half-filled tank when two or more stratified layers of different density LNG in the same tank suddenly mix together, causing a rapid increase in boil-off vapors custody transfer at the terminal moving LNG from one tank to another
What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas? pressure temperature toxicity flammability
Which of the following conditions will cause a combustible gas indicator to become inoperative or give erroneous readings? compartment to be tested is free of CO2 hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the upper explosive limit atmosphere has sufficient oxygen inerted content of the atmosphere is less than the lower explosive limit
Span gas is used for what process? To calibrate a gas analyzer to ensure it indicates correct gas concentrations. The name of a gaseous state when the temperature of the vapor is the same as that of the liquid. To insure an inert atmosphere during the span of time when a system is being brought to a dry air condition from a flammable atmosphere. To find the zero point on a gas analyzer.
What is span gas used for aboard liquefied natural gas carriers? detect leaks in cargo piping odorize the cargo inert the barrier spaces calibrate the gas leak detectors
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound? 70 (%) 80 (%) 90 (%) 95 (%)
On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas generating system as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated simultaneously? 50 (%) 75 (%) 100 (%) 125 (%)
Which of the following describes intrinsically safe equipment? an electrical circuit in which a spark is incapable of causing the ignition of a given explosive mixture electrical circuits under 2 amperes electrical circuits under 12 volts an electrical circuit normally limited to instrumentation in hazardous areas
The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following? preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank dissipating the heat of an external flame allowing the escape of flammable vapors absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity
The intakes for an air compressor on a tank vessel carrying grade A cargo may be located in which of the following areas? An enclosed machinery space containing cargo piping A cargo handling room An enclosed space connected to the cargo handling room An area aft of the cargo area 2.5 meters vertically above the deck
Which of the following choices does not depict the tank inerting process on a tank vessel? the introduction of inert gas into a cargo tank during cargo discharge operations to replace the volume of discharged cargo the introduction of inert gas into a gas free tank with the objective of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of nitrogen gas into a tank with the objective of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of oxygen into a gas free tank prior to entry
Your vessel is securely moored to the berth preparing to discharge a cargo of LPG. Which of the following items would not comply with a "Safety Checklist" and should be corrected? there is sufficient pumproom ventilation the inert gas system deck water seal is drained and secured cargo tanks atmosphere pressure is positive, with an oxygen content of 8% or below the fixed and portable oxygen analysers are calibrated and operational
Under which of the following conditions will the blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker remain operational? boiler combustion control indicates high oxygen level high temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks The tank atmosphere above 8% oxygen the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost
The cargo pump relief valve is usually piped to which of the following components? cargo pump pressure gauge atmosphere through pump vent suction side of pump crossover line
What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system? 125% of forced draft rate 125% of fan capacity 125% of shore side loading rate 125% of cargo pump capacity
If the inert gas system was not in operation while loading crude oil on a tank vessel, what action would you take? Continue loading, as this is a normal procedure. Continue loading under "Emergency Procedures" Immediately stop loading. Immediately start up the inert gas system and admit gas to the deck main when oxygen content is below 8 (%).
Which of the following conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas system? High temperature gas entering the scrubber. Low temperature water leaving the scrubber seal. Oxygen content of the gas falls below 5 (%). High temperature gas discharge from inert gas blowers.
What is the maximum allowable oxygen content within the ships cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system? 4 (%) 5 (%) 8 (%) 10 (%)
When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content less than 8%, how should cargo operations be adjusted? operations should be shut down immediately operations should continue only under "Emergency Procedures" operations should be monitored more frequently operations should continue at a slower rate until these requirements are met
When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels is transferring oil to a facility, U.S. regulations require an emergency means to stopping the flow of oil. Where must these emergency means must be operable from? two or more locations on the tank vessel the usual operating station of the person in charge of the oil transfer the engine room, cargo control room and bridge sequentially a remote location of equal distance from the tank vessel and facility
How is an inert gas system designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions? by reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion by eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks by removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks by blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
What do the emergency shutdown requirements of U.S. regulations apply to? condensate pumps induced draft fans cargo transfer systems air compressors
Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system? Deck seal low water alarm Scrubber high water level alarm Low oxygen alarm Low pressure alarm
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of Liquefied Gas? Report any leakage of cargo. Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good order. Make sure the rake ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped. Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
What is the preferable way to extinguish an Liquefied Gas fire? Apply mechanical foam. Shut off the source of the gas feeding the fire. Apply "Purple K" dry chemical. Apply water fog.
What is generally, the first action in extinguishing an Liquefied Gas fire caused by escaping gas? use a chemical foam fire extinguisher call the local fire department shut off the leak sweep flames away with water spray
In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum products, you should __________. use the overall method of loading only start to load slowly increase the air flow into the tank start to load at maximum pressure
Where is the most likely location for a cargo fire to occur on a tanker? at the main deck manifold in the pumproom at the vent header in the midships house
What is the primary function of a flame screen on a tank vessel? prevents inert gas from leaving a tank permits the passage of vapor but not of flame prevents the passage of flammable vapors permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank
Which of the following is the primary function of the screens that are fitted to the Fuel oil tank vents? vapors from leaving the tank vent flames on deck from entering the tank vent air from entering the tank vent oil from flowing out of the tank vent
Protective clothing must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship. This clothing includes which of the following at a minimum? chemical resistant gloves boots a face mask or goggles a hood or hard hat
Which of the following will prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a cargo tank on a tank vessel? inert gas a combustion stabilizer an oxidizer a vortex eliminator
In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces. This is permitted provided that the only cargo carried through such piping is(are) which of the following? grade E grades D or E grades A or B LFG
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. What action should you take to obtain an even keel and still maintain profitability? shift bunkers forward discharge cargo midships add ballast forward load more cargo forward
46 CFR directs the location of fuel oil sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels. Where can the tubes be located? Laundries Washrooms Cargo holds Crew lounge
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. Which of the following action would reduce the excessive trim? discharge cargo from the after tanks shift bunkers forward load more cargo forward add ballast forward
What are flame screens used for? prevent flames from entering tanks protect firefighters from flames keep flames and sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system contain flammable fumes
What is a cofferdam? Tube fitted to an ullage hole Void or empty space separating two tanks Opening in the deck used for cleaning a tank Area the product is loaded into
What type of valve is usually on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel? butterfly valve globe valve check valve spectacle valve
On tankers with manually operated tank valves, which of the following is the type of valve most commonly used? butterfly valve gate valve check valve globe valve
On modern tankers with separate pump rooms, which of the following is used to minimize cargo pump shaft leakage? Stuffing box glands Shaft sleeves Mechanical seals Slinger rings
The condition of asphyxia arises from which of the following? an inadequate supply of oxygen too much oxygen sleep deprivation improper caloric intake
Compared to air, the weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors are which of the following? lighter the same heavier variable
What would likely happen if you were exposed to a 100% methane atmosphere for more than 15 minutes? be severely burned suffocate break out in a cyrogenic rash become quite ill due to the toxic nature of the gas
When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important symptom to check for? slow and weak pulse unconsciousness suspension of breathing cold and moist skin
Cryogenic burns can result in frostbite, what is the proper immediate treatment? Apply ice to the area and gradually warm. Warm the area quickly by placing it in water at 108F until it has thawed. Massage the affected area. Compress the affected area with cryogenic burn heat wrap.
What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? Keep the eyelid close. Apply an ice pack to the eye. Flush the eye with plenty of water. Rub the eye area clean.
Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________. 50,000 DWT (metric tons) 50,000 DWT (long tons) 100,000 DWT (metric tons) 100,000 DWT (long tons)
During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of __________. 75 millimeters of water pressure 125 millimeters of water pressure 150 millimeters of water pressure 100 millimeters of water pressure
Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted by an inert gas system is TRUE? A positive pressure should be maintained at all times. The maximum pressure permitted is 8 psi. The pressure must remain within the limits of +5 psi to -1 psi. None of the above
Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located? Main deck and engine control consoles Cargo control and engine control consoles Bridge and tank(s) being inerted Bridge and engine control consoles
Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________. oxygen water vapor carbon dioxide nitrogen
Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of __________. 20% or less 5% or less 15% or less 10% or less
Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels? A fixed water spray system An inert gas system The fire main system The deck foam system
The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before the vessel vapor connection must be painted __________. hi-visibility yellow yellow/red/yellow international orange red/yellow/red
Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________. low inert gas temperature blower failure deck seal low water level cargo pump failure
On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________. pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange 6" reducer hose saddle stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face
Vapor recovery hoses must be tested yearly at what ratio to their maximum allowable working pressure? 1½ mawp 2 mawp 3 mawp 5 mawp
During loading, what is the minimum pressure required to be maintained by the inert gas system on cargo tanks? 2" water gauge 4" water gauge 20" water gauge 40" water gauge
When checking the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, the atmosphere must be sampled __________. one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top at three meter intervals from the tank top one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than __________. 90% of compartment capacity 99% of compartment capacity 97% of compartment capacity 95% of compartment capacity
What is the combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to? shoreside loading rate size of the largest cargo tank boiler forced draft fan rate maximum cargo pump discharge rate
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing system? Use portable washing machines to reach areas obscured by structural members in the tanks. Decant one meter from the source tank for the tank cleaning machines. Strip all tanks and remove the bottom residue. Use an inert gas system while washing tanks.
Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system? Low oxygen alarm Scrubber high water level alarm Low pressure alarm Deck seal low water alarm
The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must __________. sound when the tank is 90% full operate in unison with other alarms be both audible and visual be the same as the overfill alarm
In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound? 70 (%) 80 (%) 90 (%) 95 (%)
You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than __________. 90% of the pressure drop through the scrubber 90% of the vacuum assist fan 4" water gauge 90% of the vacuum relief setting
On a tank vessel, each high level alarm and tank overfill alarm must be tested __________. anytime prior to loading no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading no later than 24 hours prior to loading weekly
What percent of oxygen content by volume, must each inert gas system be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases? 15% or less 20% or less 10% or less 5% or less
The fresh air intake of the inert gas system __________. allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gasses prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3%
Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve sudden large overpressures that exceed the capacity of the mechanical P/V valves? Pressure control valve Deck water seal Isolation valve Liquid filled P/V breaker
After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning? Demister Deck water seal Final filter Scrubber
Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system? Removes chemical impurities from the gas. Removes particulate matter like soot. Cools the inert gas. Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.
What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system? Relieves excessive pressures from the system. Removes any leftover water or soot after the gas has been scrubbed. Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas. Prevents the flow of inert gas into closed or isolated tanks.
The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure in the hazardous zone prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________. scrubber filter cooler purifier
Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system? Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main. Cools the inert gas. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, at a minimum of __________. 50 millimeters of water pressure 100 millimeters of water pressure 150 millimeters of water pressure 200 millimeters of water pressure
The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________. cargo pump discharge rate boiler forced draft fan rate size of the largest cargo tank shoreside loading rate
In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system, there must be __________. oxygen fuel ignition All of the above.
Each hose used for transferring vapors must __________. have a design burst pressure of at least 25 psig be capable of withstanding at least 2.0 psi vacuum without collapsing or constricting be electrically continuous with a maximum resistance of ten thousand ohms All of the above.
The liquid-filled PV breaker has acted to relieve a vacuum in a tank. What action must be taken in regards to the PV-breaker before continuing operations? Refill the breaker with liquid. Manually reset the vacuum side of the breaker. Install a new rupture disc. Check to make certain that it has reset itself.
What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker? Hydraulic oil Distilled water Water-antifreeze mixture Oil from the cargo
Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks? High capacity fan Exhaust gas pressure from the stack Inert gas compressor Natural aspiration
The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________. flammable vapors from entering machinery space inert gas escaping to atmosphere air entering inert gas system flue gas escaping to atmosphere
The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________. normal water supply at the water seal is lost the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150F All of the above.
Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system? Cools the inert gas. Removes particulate matter like soot. Maintains gas pressure in the tanks. Removes chemical impurities from the gas.
Which of the following describes the fresh air intake of the inert gas system? it enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gases it allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks it prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3% it opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal
Tank vessel inerting refers to __________. the introduction of inert gas into a tank with the object of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of inert gas into a gas free tank for the purpose of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of inert gas into a cargo tank during cargo discharge to replace the volume of discharged cargo All of the above.
An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________. dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable vapors prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks blow out cargo lines to prevent the build up of gas concentrations
An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations prevent outside air from entering the tank
An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible increase the rate of discharge of cargo
On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8% oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the __________. critical displacement line critical dilution line minimum oxygen content line upper threshold limit
The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system is __________. 4 (%) 5 (%) 8 (%) 10 (%)
Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called __________. bonding gas dispersion gas freeing purging
The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________. tank atmosphere with low oxygen content better fuel economy for faster loading All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels? Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems. Helium is the preferred inert gas. Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks. All of the above.
Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE? Flue gas with excessive oxygen content is de-oxygenated in the scrubber. The boiler will produce the most quantity of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. The boiler will produce the best quality of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. Boiler soot blowers should never be used when the IG system is operating.
You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take? Reduce the pumping rate. Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position. Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow. Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases.
Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits? Loading Discharging Steaming tanks Crude oil washing
Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE? The pressures of the inert gas in the tank may create excessive pressure at the pump while discharging. Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest permissible level throughout the discharging process. High gas pressures may cause loss of suction when stripping. High gas pressures may cause pyrophoric oxidation in the tank.
Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve? The tank must be gas freed. The tank must be ballasted. The tank must be vented to the atmosphere. The bypass valve must also be closed.
Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank? Fresh air ventilation Removal of corrosion products and sludge Washing the tank interior with sea water Application of degreasing solvents
Which of the following describes excessive recirculation of inert gas? it is likely to over heat the deck water seal it is undesirable and it may lead to high oxygen content of the inert gas it is highly recommended it is likely to over pressurize the cargo tanks
Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks? Exhaust gas pressure High capacity fan Inert gas compressor Natural aspiration
While discharging cargo, the cargo tank pressures are falling too low. What can the Cargo Officer do to correct the problem? Slow the discharge rate. Ask the terminal to send more vapor to the ship. Stop the discharge rate. All of the above.
You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take? Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow. Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases. Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position. Reduce the pumping rate.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker with orders to load diethylamine. What is NOT a requirement for transporting this cargo? Each crew member must be provided with an emergency escape breathing apparatus. You must have a containment system made out of stainless steel other than types 416 and 422. You must have two toxic vapor detectors or the pumproom must meet special requirements. If you are also carrying allyl alcohol, the venting systems don't have to be segregated.
On a manned vessel carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the hazardous materials shall be inspected __________. every 24 hours unless equipped with a fire detecting system after stowage is complete prior to entry into a U.S. port All of the above.
Your tankship is carrying a 30% solution of hydrogen peroxide. The cargo containment system must have a permanent inert gas system. While discharging this cargo the inert gas system must maintain a minimum pressure of __________. 3.0 psig 0.5 psig 5.0 psig atmospheric pressure
In accordance with regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded below what temperature? 51F 90F 70F its flash point
Protective clothing must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship, and as a minimum includes __________. chemical resistant gloves a face mask or goggles boots a hood or hard hat
Which statement about the carriage of solid hazardous materials in bulk is TRUE? Hazardous materials that require separation must not be handled at the same time. The shipping papers can be used in lieu of a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for a vessel carrying solid hazardous materials in bulk. A certificate issued by ABS will be accepted as evidence that the vessel complies with all applicable loading regulations. A special permit issued by the Coast Guard is required before bulk solid materials that require special handling are loaded
You are on a cargo vessel carrying toluol in bulk in portable tanks. Which is a requirement for pumping the toluol? If transferring at anchor, you must display a red flag by day and a red light at night. Hose connections to the tank must be made with a minimum of three bolts. You must shut down if another vessel comes alongside. There must be water pressure on the fire main.
Your tankship is carrying a cargo of styrene. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for carriage of this cargo? P/V valves with galvanized parts must be replaced. You must have a "Certificate of Inhibition" provided by the shipper. The cargo tank heating coils must be blanked off. Authorization to carry styrene must be endorsed on the Certificate of Inspection.
Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE? Carriage of this cargo is authorized by issuance of an IMO Certificate. Aluminum, copper, zinc, and mercury are allowed in valve parts in contact with the cargo. The cargo may be gauged by automatic float type devices. A flammable gas detection system must be installed in each cargo pump room.
Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE? Aluminum and copper alloys are prohibited from being in valve parts in contact with the cargo. Carriage of this cargo is authorized by issuance of an IMO Certificate. Tanks may not be located "on deck". A flammable gas detection system must be installed in each cargo pump room.
You are on a vessel designed to carry compressed gasses in bulk with a cargo of butadiene. Which statement is TRUE? The shipping document must specify the exact quantity of butadiene being carried. The cargo tank may be sampled only when the tank is being filled. Silver and copper are prohibited in the parts of valves and fittings in contact with the cargo. The ullage must be padded with compressed air at a minimum pressure of 2 psig.
You are to load styrene in bulk, which is subject to self-polymerization. In accordance with 46 CFR Table 153 what are you required to do? use heating coils to maintain the styrene within the temperatures specified by the shipper be furnished with a Certificate of Inhibition to be maintained on the bridge inject nitrogen to pad any ullage above the styrene to prevent contact with oxygen not carry any cargo in the tanks surrounding the tank loaded with styrene
You are on a tankship designed to carry molten sulfur. Which statement is TRUE? Cargo temperature may be taken by portable thermometers. There must be two portable toxic vapor detectors on board. The pressure in the heating coils in the tanks must be less than that of the cargo exerted on them. The cargo tank ventilation system must maintain the H2S vapor concentration at 1.85% or more by volume.
You are on a cargo vessel carrying portable tanks of dangerous cargoes in bulk. Which statement is TRUE? If the tanks are pumped out while remaining on board, each hose connection must have a minimum of three bolts. When transferring sulfuric acid, you must display a red flag by day whether at anchor or moored. All electrical equipment within 10 feet horizontally must be explosion proof or intrinsically safe. If the tanks are off loaded, no more than two tanks may be lifted together in a hoist.
What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic acid? Restricted Closed Open None of the above
You are on a tankship carrying benzene in bulk. Which statement is TRUE? No other cargoes may be carried due to the possibility of contamination by a carcinogen. Benzene is not a cancer-causing agent. Personnel working in regulated areas must use respirators. The crew quarters must have positive-pressure ventilation to prevent the fumes from entering the living spaces.
What is NOT required as special safety equipment on a tankship carrying hazardous cargoes in bulk? Shower and eyewash fountain Two portable vapor detectors suitable for the cargoes carried Equipment to lift an injured person from a pumproom A safety locker adjacent to the emergency shutdown station
You are on a vessel carrying liquefied butadiene in bulk. Which document is NOT required to be either in the wheelhouse or easily accessible to the person on watch while underway? Cargo manual Certificate of Inspection Shipping document Cargo information card
Which is NOT required on a tankship carrying hazardous liquid cargoes in bulk? Certificate of Adequacy for the hazardous cargoes carried Certificate of Inspection issued under the Tank Vessel Regulations Cargo piping plan showing loading rates for all applicable cargo lines A copy of 46 CFR parts 35 and 150
Your tank vessel is loading a hazardous cargo. The allowance for expansion is based on ambient temperatures of what maximum range? -18C to 46C -40C to 50C -10C to 90C 0C to 100C
You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gasses in bulk. The person on watch is required to have what information about the cargo easily accessible? Exact quantity on board Name and address of consignee Firefighting procedures Port of loading
You have a tow of chemical barges. The mate reports an ammonia smell around the head of the tow. You would suspect a leak in the barge carrying __________. propanolamine morpholine methyl chloride heptane
No hot work shall be performed on board a vessel with hazardous materials as cargo unless the work is approved by the __________. local U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port National Cargo Bureau American Bureau of Shipping harbormaster
In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is forbidden to use __________. metal bale hooks slings cargo nets pallets
Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo spaces shall be inspected. The spaces shall also be inspected at least once in every 24 hours. The only exception to daily inspection is when __________. the cargo is of a nonflammable type a vessel is equipped with an automatic smoke or fire detecting system there is sufficient fire protection located on the main deck adjacent to the cargo hatch the cargo hatches are of steel construction
You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The regulations require you to __________. keep a warning sign posted nearby allow no chipping or painting in the vicinity of the cargo periodically inspect it and make an entry in a log keep a fire hose run out and ready for use if needed
If a Master must jettison a container loaded with hazardous material, he must, as soon as possible, notify the __________. National Cargo Bureau Environmental Protection Agency nearest Captain of the Port National Hazardous Chemical Response Center
Your ship is carrying hazardous cargo. During a daily inspection, you notice that some of the cargo has shifted and several cases are broken. You should FIRST __________. log the facts in the rough log and inform the Chief Mate later call out the deck gang to jettison the cargo make a determination of the seriousness of the breakage, and do what you think best report the facts immediately to the Master, who will make a decision
When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of such cargo is permitted if __________. the lashings are secured to deck pad eyes a wooden bin is constructed of at least 2-inch dunnage and bolted together the cargo is lashed to the adjacent guard rails there is at least 3 inches of dunnage on deck
What is NOT a requirement for the preparation of used, gasoline-propelled cars if they are to be carried as ordinary cargo and not as hazardous cargo? The fuel tank must be inerted with CO2. The engine must be run until it dies from lack of fuel. The ignition key may not be in the ignition. The vehicle must be inspected for fuel leaks.
Which agency is authorized to assist the Coast Guard in the inspection of vessels for the suitability of loading hazardous materials? U.S. Navy explosive loading details National Cargo Bureau, Inc. American Bureau of Shipping Environmental Protection Agency
What would NOT require that a detailed report of the release of hazardous cargo be made to the Department of Transportation? The valve on an empty portable tank that contained acetone is accidentally opened and some of the residue escapes to the open sea. Heavy weather causes damage to packages of a hazardous liquid that is subsequently pumped out at sea through the bilge pumping system. Part of your deck cargo of five gallon cans of paint is damaged and leaking so you jettison them to eliminate the fire hazard. A carboy of nitric acid is broken on deck while loading and is flushed overboard with no injury or damage.
You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. You must inspect this cargo __________. after encountering rough weather daily, at sea only after loading and prior to arrival in port only daily
You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The Dangerous Cargo Manifest must be signed by the __________. Master or his authorized representative shipper Master only U.S. Coast Guard Marine Inspector
You have loaded dangerous cargo on your vessel and must fill out a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. In which publication would you find the requirements to complete this form? IMDG - International Maritime Dangerous Goods 33 CFR - Navigation and Navigable Waters 46 CFR - Shipping IMCO - Intergovernmental Maritime Consultative Organization
You are loading a cargo that includes cylinders of acetylene aboard your break bulk vessel. Which statement is true? The cylinders may be protected from the radiant heat of the Sun by laying a tarp on them. The cylinders must be stowed at least 10 horizontal feet from corrosive materials in the same space. Stowage in the upper deck-deck is considered to be the equivalent of "on deck" stowage for this cargo. The cylinders must have a red label for flammability and a green label for compressed gas.
All handling and stowage of packaged hazardous materials on board a domestic vessel engaged in foreign trade shall be done under the supervision of __________. a U.S. Coast Guard Marine Inspector the National Cargo Bureau an officer assigned to the vessel the American Bureau of Shipping
If you carry packaged hazardous cargoes on a break bulk vessel bound foreign, you must __________. log the receipt of hazardous cargoes in the Official Logbook stow the hazardous cargoes on deck available for jettisoning if necessary have the shipping papers indicate the proper shipping name and the technical name of n.o.s. cargoes remove the hazardous cargo labels from a portable tank after the tank is emptied
Many dangerous cargoes are stowed on deck because of the __________. necessity of periodic inspection danger to crew and cargo possible need to jettison All of the above.
You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on board. It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________. in the radio room in the ship's office outside the Captain's stateroom on or near the bridge
The National Cargo Bureau represents the __________. shipper operator agent All of the above.
Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes? Navigation spaces Cofferdams Enclosed deck spaces Pump rooms
What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids? Each cargo tank must have a vent. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.
In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, what are the type(s) of cargo permitted to be carried through such piping? grades A or B grades D or E grade E LFG
What must access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes be? at least 13.1 feet away from the galleys, living quarters or navigation spaces only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems isolated from any part of the vessel which normally contains sources of vapor ignition from the open deck
Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo? A cargo handling room A space in which cargo hose is stored An enclosed space containing cargo piping All of the above.
On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation? The vessel owner The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation. The senior deck officer on duty or certified tankerman
According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type. What is the time requirement to sufficiently effect a complete change of air? 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes
A vessel constructed after 1970, carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, has enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present. What is not required for the segregation of these spaces from cargo tanks? cofferdams galleys pump rooms tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150F or above
Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems. In what time period can these systems completely change the air? 1 minute 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes
Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following? Flame screens Gooseneck vents Pressure vacuum relief valves Forced draft blowers
What are tank vessels handling grade B liquids required to have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by? gas tight bulkheads empty cargo spaces cofferdams areas equipped with power ventilation
What are the minimum ventilation requirements for pumprooms on tank vessels, constructed in 1960, carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the freeboard deck? gooseneck vents and flame screens that it be fitted with at least two ducts extended to the weather deck that it be power ventilation that it be connected to a vent header system
In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required? I II III IV
Who must approve the carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154? Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection vessel owner Commandant (G-MTH) American Bureau of Shipping
Flammable liquids should have what kind of label? White Red Yellow Skull and crossbones
Flammable liquids should have what kind of label? Skull and crossbones Red Yellow White
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)? Nickel Copper or copper alloys Aluminum Stainless steel
Camphor oil is classified as a __________. Grade A flammable liquid Grade C flammable liquid Grade D combustible liquid Grade E combustible liquid
Grade E combustible liquids have a flash point of __________. 150F and above 150F and below below 80F below 150F and above 80F
Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of __________. 150F or greater greater than 115F and less than 150F greater than 80F and less than 115F 80F or less
According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees F) of __________. 65 80 - 100 110 - 140 150 - 430(cc)
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use on a retinol fire? Foam Dry chemical CO2 Water spray
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire? Dry chemical Alcohol foam Water fog CO2
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline? Copper Nickel Mild steel Aluminum
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what are the flammable limits of ethylene oxide? 2 - 100 (%) 2.7 - 34 (%) 1.85 - 48.0 (%) 1.9 - 88.0 (%)
According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard? It does not need oxygen for combustion. It reacts with water to provide flammable vapors. Its flash point is 80.4F. It breaks down into highly toxic fumes of bromides.
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited? Poisonous chlorine gas Toxic fumes of lead Poisonous phosgene gas Toxic fumes of oxides of nitrogen
According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. What does the last digit "2" of the rating mean? chemical vapors will cause a slight smarting of the eyes or respiratory system if present in high concentrations the chemical is severely hazardous, usually having threshold limits below 10 ppm the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm the chemical contains fairly severe skin irritants, causing second- and third-degree burns after a few minutes contact
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire? Carbon Tetrachloride Alcohol foam CO2 Water foam
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire? Dry chemical Water foam Water fog Sand or Sawdust
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does the grade B flammable liquid carbon disulfide produce when burning? carbon tetrachloride phosgene gas sulfur dioxide gas sulfuric acid gas
According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is __________. 108F 43C not available -20F
According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic? A boiling point of 43F Insoluble in water A Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia Specific Gravity of 0.86
According to the Chemical Data Guide, 1,3 - pentadiene possesses which characteristic? Colorless liquid, faint odor Straw-colored liquid, sweet-odor Colorless liquid, mild aromatic odor Pale yellow liquid, strong odor
According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong? Olefins Unsaturated hydrocarbons Esters Phosphorus
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tert-butylamine? 11 (psig) 12 (psig) 13 (psig) 14 (psig)
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is a characteristic of allyl chloride? It has sour odor. It is classified as a grade B poison. It is chemically unstable It may be stored in steel tanks
According to the chemical data guide, what type of odor would you smell if a leak occurred while loading diethylenetriamine? gasoline rotten eggs ammonia None of the above
Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________. 80F or less 212F or greater 150F or greater but less than 212F greater than 80F and less than 150F
According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) __________. corrosive class B poison oxidizer explosive
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area? Dry chemical Monoxide powders CO2 Foam
Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label? Red Skull and crossbones Green White
Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label? Skull and crossbones Red Green White
The flash point of vinyl chloride is __________. -20F (-29C) 97F (36C) 32F (0C) -108F (-78C)
Another name for coal naphtha that would appear on a dangerous cargo manifest is __________. tar middle oil benzene toluene
You are loading a cargo tank on your container ship. The tank displays the red label as shown in illustration D023DG below. Which statement is TRUE? The tank's volume is 1077 cubic feet. There are three tanks in the shipment. The tank contains an oxidizing material. The tank contains propylene.
Which statement concerning castor oil is TRUE? It has a specific gravity of 1.3. It is a grade E combustible liquid. It has a Reid vapor pressure of 9.5. The boiling point is 215F (102C).
What produces the MOST dangerous vapors? Camphor oil Pentane Methyl alcohol Anhydrous ammonia
What is the MOST irritating to the skin? Oleum Ethyl alcohol Isoprene Carbon disulfide
What is an explosion hazard when exposed to flame? Tallow Nitrous oxide Toluene Formic acid
Sulfuric acid is a __________. whitish liquid with a faint, pleasant odor colorless-to-brown liquid with a choking odor when hot colorless liquid with a pleasant fruity odor clear syrupy liquid with no odor
Which statement is TRUE concerning toluene? Its Reid Vapor Pressure is 9.4. The boiling point is 174F. It is an aromatic hydrocarbon. It is classified as a grade A flammable liquid.
What is a solid at ambient temperature? Methyl chloride Napthalene Aniline Formic acid
Which flash point would indicate a grade E combustible liquid? 140F 155F 80F 75F
Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________. alkalies saltwater concentrated nitric acid organic acids
Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils more harmful to sea life than lighter oils less harmful to sea life than lighter oils not a real threat to marine life
Containers of flammable solids should be conspicuously labeled by the shipper with a __________. yellow label orange label green label red and white label
The label required for magnesium scrap is __________. oxidizer yellow corrosive None of the above
Corrosive liquids and acids should have which kind of label? Yellow and white Red and white White and black Skull and crossbones
Cottonseed oil is classed as a __________. poison B flammable liquid combustible liquid flammable solid
Argon is classified as a __________. flammable liquid flammable gas nonflammable gas corrosive
The label required on containers carrying barium oxide in an international shipment must read __________. "Poison" "Infectious Substance" "Radioactive" "Spontaneously Combustible"
A package contains nitric acid solution and is radioactive. The radiation level at the package surface is .36 millirems per hour. How should this package be labeled? Radioactive II and oxidizer Radioactive II and poison Radioactive I and corrosive Fissile class I
You are on a containership carrying a tank container that had been filled with sodium hydroxide solution. The container is empty but has not been cleaned. Which, if any, placard is required? Black and white corrosive placard Empty placard with corrosive placard Residue label with the UN number No placard is required; the tank openings must be sealed
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2206 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Xylenol Propadiene, inhibited Isocyanates, n.o.s. Hexanols
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2282 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Furan Phosphine Isoheptene Hexanols
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2199 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Adiponitrile Phosphine Xylenol Furan
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2224 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Acrylic acid Propadiene, inhibited Hexanol Benzonitrile
Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label? Red Skull and crossbones White Yellow
What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE? 1 ppm 2 ppm 3 ppm 4 ppm
What is the TLV of cyclohexanol? 20 ppm 30 ppm 40 ppm 50 ppm
Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E? Bunker C Gasoline Kerosene All of the above.
The appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and __________. soluble oils cutting oils viscous oils slop oils
When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly toxic fumes of __________. lead bromide phosgene hydrogen gas
You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be __________. fishy similar to ammonia similar to turpentine sweet
What is classified as a combustible liquid? Carbon tetrachloride Acetaldehyde Tetraethylene glycol Ethyl alcohol
If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you should be aware that it is __________. highly toxic when absorbed through the skin a nerve poison a blood poison All of the above.
What are the health hazard ratings for a product of triethylbenzene? 1,1,1 2,2,2 0,1,1 Unavailable
In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical? Acetic oxide Carbinol Carbon bisulfide Phenol
Triethylene glycol fires may be extinguished by __________. carbon dioxide dry chemical alcohol foam All of the above.
What is NOT a grade E product? Creosote coal tar Formic acid Dioctyl-phthalate Gasoline
A synonym for chloroform is __________. sulfuric chlorohydrin trichloromethane 4-methyl phenol chlorine gas
You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the cleanup procedure? Sodium carbonate Sodium bisulfite Alcohol Soda ash solution
Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a __________. blood poisoning agent respiratory irritant nerve paralyzing irritant skin burning agent
What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? Keep the eyelid closed. Apply an ice pack to the eye. Rub the eye area clean. Flush the eye with plenty of water.
What is the Reid vapor pressure of a Grade A flammable liquid? 5 to 8 1/2 psia more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia 14 psia or more None of the above
You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. What does the Chemical Data Guide indicate is the solubility of ethyl chloride in water? negligible slight complete moderate
What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid? Ethyl acetate iso-Propylamine Morpholine Acetone
What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid? Methyl alcohol Ethylene dibromide Pentane Nonyl phenol
During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the Chemical Data Guide, at what temperature will the ethyl chloride boil off the water? above 46F above 54F above 60F above 68F
During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the correct reaction? move to a position upwind of the spill and allow the product to boil off add sodium bisulfate on the contaminated surface and spray it down with water cover the contaminated surface with soda-ash-soaked lime solution immediately flush the spill with large quantities of fresh water
Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire? Absorbent C Foam Water fog Any isoprene inhibitor
What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air in the presence of an ignition source? autoignition temperature reid vapor index flash point flammable range
What is the flash point of iso-Hexane? -10Fahrenheit 20Centigrade 68Fahrenheit 152Centigrade
Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine? Alcohol foam Water foam Dry chemical powder Water fog
What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46 C? 15.2 (psia) 48.0 (psia) 10.9 (psia) 38.5 (psia)
To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong? Esters Alkylene oxides Glycol ethers Alcohols
What is the Reid vapor pressure of a grade B product? 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95F more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72F above 14 psia 7 psia and a flash point of 80F
To what chemical family does chlorallylene belong? Substituted allyl Alcohols Glycol ethers Esters
What is the Reid vapor pressure of allyl chloride? 16.5 (psia) 14.0 (psia) 12.9 (psia) 10.3 (psia)
What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide? 167F 115F 111F 46F
Which of the following is classified as a flammable liquid? Bunker C Mineral spirits Methyl alcohol Butane
Which is an example of a grade B flammable liquid? Phenol Acetaldehyde Carbon disulfide Allyl alcohol
What is a grade B flammable liquid? Ethylene oxide Allyl alcohol Paraldehyde Chlorallylene
Which is a grade B flammable liquid? Carbon Disulfide Ethyl Chloride Butadiene Carbon Tetrachloride
Which extinguishing agent is recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a carbon disulfide fire? Alcohol foam Water fog Dry chemical Chemical foam
Which of the following would be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene? Foam Low Velocity Fog High Velocity Fog Water
What is a major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine? can be absorbed through the skin causes irreversible damage to eye tissue is a very unstable product it reacts to protective rubber gear
Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 65F 87F 160F 155F
Which flash point would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 40F 95F 79F 155F
An example of a grade D product is __________. aviation gas grade 115/145 kerosene heavy fuel oil commercial gasoline
Which cargo is considered volatile? Bunker C Sweet oil Turkey-red oil iso-Propylamine
You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________. 2 ppm 10 - 25 ppm 40 ppm 105 ppm
In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical? Tar camphor Napthalene Treacle Mineral spirits
Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E? Sulfuric acid Formaldehyde solutions 37% to 50% 1,1,1-trichloroethane All of the above.
The flash point of a product is 100F. What can happen if it is heated above 110F? It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present. It will become less volatile and easier to handle. It will boil off to the atmosphere. None of the above
If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________. within the "explosive range" above the "explosive range" below the "explosive range" None of the above
If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should IMMEDIATELY __________. give victim stimulant treat victim for shock administer oxygen flush skin and eyes with water
When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, check it __________. one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom at three meter intervals from the tank top to the bottom one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids __________. contracts expands remains constant if pressure remains constant remains constant
Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker? In a common vent header during tank ballasting. In a cargo tank during inerting operations. In the overflow line while topping off. In a cargo tank during "Butterworthing".
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off? Reduce the loading rate. Maintain communications with the dock man. Give the operation your undivided attention. Notify the engine room of the procedure.
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? Trip the pump relief valve. Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor. Run out the vessel's or terminal's fire hose. Order the dock man to shut down.
Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day because __________. a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow the increased viscosity of the product requires higher loading pressure which increases the chances of a spill air pockets may cause the cargo to bubble out of the ullage hole the tank valve may be stiff and a spill will occur before the valve can be closed
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. To adjust the trim you may __________. add ballast forward shift bunkers forward load more cargo forward All of the above.
Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. To adjust the trim, you may __________. add ballast aft load more cargo aft shift cargo aft All of the above.
Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker? Reid vapor pressures Specific gravities Contamination of the cargo Flash points
When loading a tanker, you should __________. keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing keep a strain on the loading hoses load only one tank at a time
A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have? Down by the bow Down by either the bow or stern Down by the stern In level trim
In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator? The dirty ballast tank is crude oil washed. The slops should be allowed time to settle. The clean tanks should be ballasted. Chemicals should be added to emulsify the oil.
According to U.S. regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk? One and one half times the distance between ship and dock. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the hoses. Twice the distance between ship and dock. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose.
The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil carriers, what is this a method for? loading ballast by gravity calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks the loading of new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank
Where do you check when measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery? at three meter intervals from the tank top to the bottom one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, where should you top off? to within 1% to 3% of its capacity to the bottom of the expansion trunk 1 to 3 inches from top of the vent pipe to within 1 to 3 inches of its capacity
A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have? Down by either the bow or stern Down by the bow Down by the stern In level trim
When loading a petroleum cargo which is below average ambient temperatures, You must do which of the following? verify vapor baffles are installed verify the vents are sealed verify there is room for expansion All of the above.
Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day due to which of the following? air pockets may cause the cargo to bubble out of the ullage hole a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow the tank valve may be stiff and a spill will occur before the valve can be closed the increased viscosity of the product requires higher loading pressure which increases the chances of a spill
The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of the __________. booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction ship's pump speeding up booster pump failing to start
When stripping a tank, excessive air in the suction line may cause __________. an over pressurized line increase of suction loss of suction back pressure
While discharging a tanker, list can be controlled by __________. using wing tanks near the longitudinal center, discharging as necessary using the after peak tank, loading as necessary using a center tank near the bow, discharging as necessary shoreside personnel
When discharging an oil cargo, the first consideration is to __________. discharge from the wings first get the bow up discharge from the centerline tanks first discharge from amidships first
Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient? Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from midships and after tanks Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among the tanks Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships tank is emptied Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence
You are on a tankship discharging oil. When all of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank, the remainder is __________. stripped out and pumped directly ashore into the mainline as the remaining cargo tanks are pumped out with the main pumps gravitated to the centers from the wings and pumped out with the main pumps stripped to one tank and then pumped out with the main pumps stripped out and pumped directly ashore after all the tanks have been emptied by the main pumps
Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient? Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships tank is emptied Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from midships and after tanks Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among the tanks
You are on a tankship discharging oil. what happens to the remaining oil when all of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank? the remainder is gravitated to the centers from the wings and pumped out with the main pumps the remainder is stripped out and pumped directly ashore after all the tanks have been emptied by the main pumps the remainder is stripped out and pumped directly ashore into the mainline as the remaining cargo tanks are pumped out with the main pumps the remainder is stripped to one tank and then pumped out with the main pumps
While discharging a cargo, the stripping of the tanks falls behind schedule. What does this indicate? main pumps are leaving too much oil in the tanks stripping pump is not primed stripping line is cross-connected to the main line main pumps are working at a high discharge pressure
According to U.S. regulations, which conditions would not disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil? Evidence of internal or external deterioration. A small cut in the hose cover which just pierces the reinforcement. A slight oil seepage between the hose and flange connection. A leak in the flange gasket while hydrostatically testing the hose.
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil? A cut in the cover which makes the reinforcement visible. Evidence of internal or external deterioration. The hose has not been tested in the last 180 days. A blown gasket when hydrostatic test pressure is applied.
According to U.S. regulations, no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed what document? oil record book declaration of inspection certificate of inspection valve inspection record
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of inspection? paper issued by the Coast Guard marine inspector which allows you to conduct a transfer operation application you must complete and submit to the Coast Guard to have an inspector visit your vessel document signed by vessel and shore facility persons-in-charge declaring that all transfer requirements have been met annual report submitted by vessel personnel to the Coast Guard declaring that all transfer equipment has been inspected
Your tank vessel is fully loaded to the marks, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. Which of the following choices would be the best action to take to trim the vessel slightly by the stern? load more cargo aft shift cargo aft shift ballast from the aft to forward add ballast aft
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off? Notify the engine room of the procedure. Give the operation your undivided attention. Reduce the loading rate. Maintain communications with the dock man.
U.S. regulations require which of the following upon completion of oil transfer operations? all soundings shall be entered in the oil record book all persons on duty during oil transfer shall be accounted for all hoses shall be blown down with air all valves used during transfer shall be closed
Which of the following describes the Declaration of Inspection required prior to the transfer of fuel? it requires the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard to be posted at the gangway it is the same as the Certificate of Inspection it describes the procedure for draining the sumps of oil lubricated machinery into the bilges of U.S. vessels it must be signed by both the person-in-charge of the pumping and the person-in-charge of receiving
On tankers ullages are measured from what point? an above-deck datum such as the top of the ullage pipe the tank ceiling aboard transversely framed vessels the tank top a thievage mark below the edge of the deck
What does the sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer read? "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors" "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear" "Danger, Do Not Board" "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
On tankers using manually operated tank valves, what does the deck hand wheel indicator register? exact lift position of the tank valve disk, through 100% of its operation oxygen content of the tank level of oil in the tank approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened
Each pressure gauge used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent? 1 (%) 3 (%) 5 (%) 10 (%)
Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least how many psi? 75 psi 100 psi 120 psi 150 psi
Each pressure gauge used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent? 1 percent 3 percent 5 percent 10 percent
When loading a tanker, you should do which of the following? load only one tank at a time keep a strain on the loading hoses keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing
What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump? Provides for the removal of vapors Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump
When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, what action should you take? close the valve on the discharge side of the pump to re-acquire suction open all valves on the discharge side to permit improved flow shut down one pump close the valve on the suction side of the ballast pump to re-prime the pump
Which refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a tank? Thievage Ullage Outage Innage
When tank cleaning with a portable machine, how is the weight of the machine is suspended? a wire rope suspension line a natural fiber tag line, saddle and hose a portable davit solid metal bars clamped to the Butterworth opening
When discharging a tanker, how can list be controlled? by using a center tank near the bow, discharging as necessary by using wing tanks near the longitudinal center, discharging as necessary by shoreside personnel by using the after peak tank, loading as necessary
"Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed at an oil terminal facility, when there is a change of which of the following? cargo lines at the terminal before loading product before the start of loading product after the final discharge product during the final phase of loading
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the first action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? Order the dock man to shut down. Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose. Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor. Unplug the deck scuppers.
While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open, what is the first action you should take? unplug the deck scuppers call the chief engineer order the shore facility to shut down run out the vessels fire hose
Who must supervise functions aboard a tanker or tank barge such as connecting, disconnecting, and topping off? the Master of the vessel the officer of the watch any certificated tankerman the person designated as "person in charge"
When stripping a tank, what is caused by excessive air in the suction line? loss of suction increase of suction back pressure an over pressurized line
What is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo tank called? thievage ullage tankage innage
Which of the following is equivalent to a "barrel", which is a unit of liquid measure? 40 U.S. gallons at 50F 43 U.S. gallons at 65F 42 U.S. gallons at 60F 45 U.S. gallons at 75F
What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use. Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts. Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft. Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank.
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off? Maintain communications with the dock man. Reduce the loading rate. Notify the engine room of the procedure. Give the operation your undivided attention.
You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works fine for awhile and then loses suction. What could have caused this? the pump running backwards incomplete priming the discharge head being too high head pressure on the suction side of the pump
What is litmus paste is used to determine? ullage the tank datum point innage thievage
According to U.S. regulations, no person may connect or disconnect an oil transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation on a tank vessel unless which of the following is met? the designated person-in-charge supervises that procedure that person holds a tankerman assistant endorsement that person holds a license as master, mate, or engineer that person holds a valid port security card
Which of the following is the pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on a tank vessel? junction crossover transfer connection
How should pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock be prevented? tying off the topping lifts and runners to winch heads laying out an excess length of hose on deck adjusting the hose supports install hose preventers
Which of the following terms best describes the amount of product in a tank measured from the tank top to the level of liquid? Innage Thievage Outage Ullage
What should be the first consideration when discharging an oil cargo? discharge from the wings first get the bow up discharge from amidships first discharge from the centerline tanks first
How can you determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry? check the loading order ask the terminal supervisor or his representative examine the cargo tanks and fittings refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed? The oiler The designated person in charge The senior able seaman The tankerman
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose. Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor. Order the dock man to shut down. Trip the pump relief valve.
The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer should state which of the following? "Danger, Do Not Board" "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors" "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear" "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
Which of the following procedures would insure proper seating of the valve when closing? set up as tight as possible by hand closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again set up tight using a valve wrench
Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker? Reid vapor pressures Flash points Specific gravities Contamination of the cargo
When loading a tanker, you should perform which of the following functions to ensure a safe operation? keep a strain on the loading hoses load only one tank at a time keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing
Which lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be painted or soaked in oil when not in use? Webbing Wire rope. Chain All of the above.
Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be stowed when not in use? Webbing Wire rope Chain All of the above.
Entries should be made in a Ro-Ro vessel's cargo-securing device record book for __________. procedures for accepting cargo securing devices record of cargo securing device inspections procedures for maintaining and repairing cargo-securing devices All of the above.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Ro-Ro vessel? Heavy vehicles only require lightweight securing equipment Long port stays necessary to secure vehicles Short in port turnaround times Passenger tours available upon docking
How could lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels be stowed when not in use? Hang vertically in a sheltered area Stow in bins at hatch coming side Drape along brackets All of the above.
What characterizes a Ro-Ro vessel? Lightweight securing equipment trailers May carry up to 24 passengers Long port stays required for cargo securing High freeboard and sail area
Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be maintained when not in use? Webbing Wire rope Chain All of the above.
Which of the following is not a loading or transfer feature aboard a Ro-Ro vessel? Stuelcken boom Stern ramp and/or side ramp Hatch opening designed as a lift Cargo lift
The primary objective of a Ro-Ro vessel is to __________. transport vehicles load the vessel with palletized cargo transfer containers without chassis be loaded full and down to her marks
Cargo that is suitable for carriage on Ro-Ro vessels includes __________. trailers rolling vehicles containers All of the above.
Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Road train Semi-trailer Articulated road train All of the above.
Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Articulated train Train Semi-trailer All of the above.
Any vehicle to be loaded aboard a Ro-Ro vessel must __________. be provided with an effective braking system have securing points with each aperture capable of accepting more than one lashing weigh less than 22 tons All of the above.
Which operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel? Periodic inspection and retensioning of lashings during the voyage One officer assigned to oversee the initial loading and lashing All lashings should be completed before leaving port All of the above.
Which standard operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel? Battery cables must be disconnected to prevent fire hazard One deck engine mechanic assigned to oversee the initial loading and lashing Periodic inspection and retensioning of lashings as required during voyage All of the above.
When accepting vehicles for shipment, the Master should ensure that __________. all decks intended for the stowage of vehicles are, in so far as is practicable, free from oil and grease vehicles are in apparent good order and condition suitable for sea transport, particularly with regards to securing the ship has on board an adequate supply of cargo securing gear, which is maintained in sound working condition All of the above.
Onboard a Ro-Ro vessel many decks are used for the carriage of both rolling and container cargoes, as such it is most useful if a deck socket accepts both __________. twist-Locks and lashing hooks bridge fittings and lashing hooks container locks and bridge fittings twist-locks and container locks
Cargo securing for Ro-Ro is based on the concept of __________. palletized cargo rapid loading and discharge vessel loaded full and down to her marks solid packing
The securing of passenger cars on a Ro-Ro vessel requires __________. low labor intensive equipment specially designed equipment to avoid vehicle damage simple and lightweight equipment All of the above.
Which of the following is considered auxiliary securing equipment that provides extra reliability to lashing in Ro-Ro transport operations? Wheel chocks Trailer trestles Pedestals All of the above.
The lashings used on Ro-Ro vessels should be capable of withstanding the forces of __________. pitching heaving rolling All of the above.
Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Changes in humidity Center of gravity of vehicle or cargo unit Age of vehicle or cargo unit Vessel's draft
Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Size and weight of vehicle/cargo unit Air pressure in the vehicles tires Age of vehicle or cargo unit Reputation of shipper concerning condition of cargo
Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Port of origin Vessel's draft ABS requirements Number, position and angle of lashings
Which lashing device(s) would be used in securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Chain Buckle or ratchet tensioner Webbing All of the above.
Which of the following lashing materials would be used in securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Buckle or ratchet tensioner Webbing Chain lever or turnbuckle All of the above.
Which lashing materials would be used in securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Chain Chain lever or turnbuckle Webbing None of the above
Which lashing material is preferred when securing new cars aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Webbing Wire Chain lever or turnbuckle None of the above
What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Manila rope Buckle or ratchet tensioner Wire Chain
What is used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Buckle or ratchet tensioner Webbing Manila rope None of these
What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Wire Chain lever or turnbuckle Chain None of these
What may NOT be used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Chain lever Chain Webbing Turnbuckle
An advantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. absorbs shock is light weight has fine adjustment has long life
A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. is easily damaged does not absorb shock is affected by temperature can wrap around cargo
A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it is __________. easily damaged costly relative to the strength ratio affected by temperature heavy
The disadvantage(s) of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that __________. it does not absorb shock it is heavy the links lose strength if placed over corners All of the above.
A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that __________. it is easily damaged the links lose strength if placed over corners it is affected by temperature it has high initial cost
The disadvantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. deteriorates in sunlight is vulnerable to damage and pilferage cuts on sharp edges All of the above.
What is/are the advantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Flexible Light and easy to handle Good working life All of the above.
The advantage(s) of using wire rope lashing on vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. has a good working life is Lighter than chain is not affected by temperature All of the above.
Which tensioning device is used with wire rope lashing to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Ratchet tensioner Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever Buckle tensioner
Which tensioning device is used with chain to secure heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever Ratchet tensioner Buckle tensioner
Which tensioning device is used with webbing to secure light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Ratchet tensioner Turnbuckle Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever
Which of the following tensioning devices is used with webbing to secure light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Adjust-a-matic tensioner Buckle tensioner Turnbuckle Chain lever
Which tensioning device is used with wire rope lashing to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Buckle tensioner Ratchet tensioner Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever.
Which tensioning device is used with chain to secure heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Turnbuckle Adjust-a-matic tensioner Ratchet tensioner Buckle tensioner
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? The generally recommended lash angle is no greater than 45 degrees relative to the deck in any direction. It is not necessary for an adequate number of securing points on the vehicles themselves since setting the brakes is sufficient. The movements experienced by road borne cargo are the same as the movements of a ship at sea. The securing of cargo on flats and trailers must be adequate to withstand road motions only.
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? It is necessary for an adequate number of securing points on the vehicles themselves in order that lashings may be properly and safely utilized. The generally recommended lash angle cannot be greater than 45 degrees relative to the deck in any direction. The securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers must be adequate to withstand both road and sea motions All of the above.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? For effective securing vehicles should be stowed athwartships whenever possible. The generally recommended lash angle should not be greater than 45 degrees relative to the deck in any direction. It is NOT imperative that the securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers be adequate for BOTH road and sea motions. It is not necessary to lash automobiles since setting the brakes is sufficient to keep them from moving.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? It is necessary for adequate number and strength of securing points on the vehicles themselves in order that lashings may be properly and safely utilized. The movements experienced by road borne cargo differ significantly from the roll and sway movements of a ship at sea. It is imperative that the securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers be adequate for both road and sea motions. All of the above.
Which factor(s) affect lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Wide variations of air temperature Ship's characteristics and motion in a seaway Trim of the vessel All of the above.
What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles on a Ro-Ro? Disconnecting the battery cables to prevent fire hazard Number, position and angle of lashes Minor air pressure changes in the tires Number of axles
What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles aboard a Ro-Ro vessel? The size, weight, and center of gravity of vehicle/cargo unit The preferred stowage of vehicles is athwartships wherever possible That all fuel is drained from the vehicles' tanks to prevent fire hazard The vehicles' brakes should not be set to allow for adjusting the lashings
Which factor(s) should be considered when loading vehicles or trailers aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Vertical clearances Layout of decks Tie-down and lashing All of the above.
Which element(s) should be taken into account in the preparation of the "Cargo Securing Manual"? Geographical area of the voyage Weight of the vehicles Dynamic forces under adverse weather conditions All of the above.
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 3.5 Tons and 20 Tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Four Three One Two
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 30 tons and 40 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? One Two Three Four
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 3.5 tons and 20 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Three Two One None of the above
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 20 tons and 30 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Three Two One None of the above
What should be done after putting down the ramp on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds. Call out the deck department for all hands. Turn on red cargo light. None of the above
What should be done before energizing the cargo hold ventilation on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo? Notify the engine room. Notify the boarding agent. Call out the deck department for all hands. All of the above.
What should be done immediately after putting down the stern ramp on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo? Turn on the red cargo light. Raise/open the stern door. Call out the deck department for all hands. Turn on pumproom ventilation.
Which of the following is NOT necessary, prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Lower the stern ramp. Turn on the red cargo light. Turn on ventilation for cargo holds. Raise/open the stern door.
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door Raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open stern door Lower the stern ramp, raise/open stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp
Which of the following is the stated proper sequence before commencing cargo operations aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Notify engine room, lower the ramp, start ventilation Start ventilation, notify engine room, lower the ramp Lower the ramp, start ventilation, notify engine room Start ventilation, lower the ramp, notify engine room
Peck and Hale gear is used most commonly for securing __________. palletized cargo large wooden crates automobiles baled cargo
While loading or discharging vehicles, which is the most important safety consideration aboard a Ro-Ro vessel? Calling out the deck department for all hands periodically Notifying the engine room prior to completing operations Preventing the asphyxiation of personnel below decks Ensuring that a fuel barge cannot come alongside
The most important safety consideration during loading or discharge aboard a Ro-Ro vessel is __________. ensuring that visitors cannot come aboard having all crewmembers and longshoremen wear hard hats the thorough ventilation of all cargo spaces having the outboard anchor down
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0003 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference to determine the sagging numeral.
71.07 numeral 74.95 numeral 77.56 numeral 78.29 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0004 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
49.73 numeral 52.76 numeral 55.29 numeral 57.93 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0009 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
43.19 numeral 46.56 numeral 49.92 numeral 55.72 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0001 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
86.72 numeral 89.98 numeral 91.40 numeral 93.18 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0014 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 81.79 numeral 89.68 numeral 91.92 numeral 85.02 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0002 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.
29.49 numeral 31.97 numeral 33.61 numeral 35.12 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0023 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral 91.42 numeral 79.23 numeral 74.73 numeral 85.60 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0024 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral. 52.79 numeral 91.36 numeral 101.02 numeral 72.43 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0025 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability book to determine the hogging numeral.
84.46 numeral 98.23 numeral 95.70 numeral 81.37 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0026 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 72.42 numeral 78.98 numeral 83.46 numeral 91.48 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0027 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 49.82 numeral 58.33 numeral 29.70 numeral 33.63 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0028 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 40.18 numeral 89.75 numeral 22.44 numeral 28.62 numeral
Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel? The stress on the hull The vertical center of gravity GM The longitudinal center of gravity
A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity? 326.6 343.2 377.6 390.2
A tanker is loaded with 5,000 barrels of petroleum. The cargo was loaded at a temperature of 70F, and the coefficient of expansion is .0004. What is the net amount in barrels of cargo loaded? 4800 4980 5020 5200
A cargo of 10,000 barrels of gasoline is loaded at a temperature of 90F, and a cargo temperature of 55F, is expected on this voyage. It has a coefficient of expansion of .0006. How many barrels would you expect to discharge at your destination? 9790 9994 10210 10410
A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product is 88F. API gravity is 39. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in gallons, loaded is __________. 496944 511056 650760 669240
Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil, whose average cargo temperature was 30C (86F). API is 25. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100F prior to discharge, how many barrels will you offload? 10315 10063 9937 9685
Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil, whose average cargo temperature was 30C (86 F). API is 25. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100F prior to discharge, how many gallons will you offload? 417354 422646 546535 553465
Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50F, departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90F at the discharge port? 5856 5982 6018 6144
Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50F, departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90F at the discharge port? 337920 322080 295952 258048
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85F, departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50F at the discharge port? 7880 7832 8168 8120
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85F, departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50F at the discharge port? 449240 430760 343056 328944
Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96F. API was 15. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56F at the discharge port, how many barrels will be offloaded? 19680 19712 20288 20320
Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96F. API was 15. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56F at the discharge port, how many gallons will be offloaded? 853440 1082400 826560 1117600
Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90F. API was 15. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100F at the discharge port, how many barrels will be offloaded? 21252 21912 22088 22748
A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 90F (32C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. What is the net amount of cargo loaded? 8856 bbls 8784 bbls 8820 bbls 9216 bbls
Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90F. API was 15. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100F at the discharge port, how many gallons will be offloaded? 1214840 1205160 927696 920304
Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35C (95F). API gravity is 44. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound to New Jersey from Venezuela. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55F at the discharge port? 9180 9090 8820 8910
Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35C (95F). API gravity is 44. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound for New Jersey from Venezuela. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55F at the discharge port? 504900 485100 370440 85560
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36C (97F). API gravity is 54. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. You are bound for New Jersey from Ecuador. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55F at the discharge port? 7798 7827 8173 8202
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36C (97F). API gravity is 54. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. You are bound for New Jersey from Ecuador. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55F at the discharge port? 327533 344484 451110 428890
A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 80F (27C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. The net amount of cargo loaded is __________. 8,944 barrels 8,856 barrels 9,144 barrels 9,072 barrels
A cargo of oil has a coefficient of expansion of .0005 per degree F. If this cargo is loaded at 70F, and a cargo temperature of 90F is expected at the discharge port, how many barrels would you expect to unload if you loaded 10,000 barrels? 9900 9990 10010 10100
A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66F. API gravity is 36. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80F is expected at the discharge port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many barrels would you expect to unload? 8910 8937 9063 9090
A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66F. API gravity is 36. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80F is expected at the discharge port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many gallons would you expect to unload? 375354 380646 491535 498465
A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is 50F. API gravity is 37. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in barrels of cargo loaded? 7984 7960 8040 8016
A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is 50F. API gravity is 37. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in gallons of cargo loaded? 334320 337680 437800 442200
A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product is 88F. API gravity is 39. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in barrels, loaded is __________. 11832 12006 12168 11994
You are loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0900 you find that you have loaded 207,000 barrels. At 1030 you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 2100 that night 0730 the next day 0910 the next day 1215 the next day
You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you continue at the same rate, you will finish at __________. 1322, 13 April 1920, 13 April 1120, 14 April 1305, 14 April
You are loading 475,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0800 on 8 July, you find that you have loaded 174,000 barrels. At 1000, you find that you have loaded 192,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 1752, 8 July 1940, 8 July 0143, 9 July 1727, 9 July
You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find that you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 1510, 5 November 1104, 6 November 1242, 6 November 0735, 7 November
You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find that you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 0735, 7 November 1104, 6 November 1510, 5 November 0140, 6 November
You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. When will you complete loading if you continue at the same rate? 1322, 13 April 1920, 13 April 1120, 14 April 1305, 14 April
The process of adding mercaptans to gas, is known as which of the following? smelling stenching saturating reeking
A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 gpm. If suction is taken on a ballast tank containing 200 long tons of seawater, how much water will be remain in the tank after discharging for one hour? 45.83 long tons 101.63 long tons 154.16 long tons 199.87 long tons
What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use
Which of the following best describes the heat value of a fuel? the amount of fuel added to a fuel to cause it to burn the amount of heat released when a fuel is burned the temperature to which a fuel must be raised to cause ignition the cost per BTU of a fuel
What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts
What is the heat given to or given up by a substance while changing state? condensation latent heat vaporization evaporation
A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity? 390.2 326.6 377.6 343.2
Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________. repair the hose with a patch place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers notify the terminal superintendent replace the hose
The most likely time for oil pollution while bunkering is when __________. hoses are disconnected and being capped final topping off is occurring hoses are being blown down first starting to receive fuel
When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be __________. drained, blanked off, and stored securely cleaned internally with a degreaser stowed vertically and allowed to drain washed out with hot soapy water
Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during fueling operations? All windows, doors, hatches, etc. should be closed. Fuel tanks should be topped off with no room for expansion. All engines, motors, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling. A fire extinguisher should be kept nearby.
If you are bunkering and you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________. stop decrease increase remain constant
Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while bunkering? A red and yellow flag A red light A red flag A yellow flag
Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a dock? Two red lights One red light One red light over a yellow light One red light over a white light
When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed? A red flag by day, red light by night A red flag by day, a blue light by night A yellow flag by day, red light by night A green flag by day, green light by night
When bunkering at anchorage which of the following signals must be displayed? A red flag by day, red light by night A red light by night ONLY A red flag by day ONLY No signal required at anchorage
The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the engine room should first be informed and then __________. spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust rig a fire hose and call for water on deck remove the plugs from the scuppers sound the general alarm
A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________. plug the vents plug the scuppers plug the sounding pipes close the lids on the vents
When selecting the fuel oil tanks for the "burn-out" of bunkers during a voyage consideration of all of the following must be taken with the EXCEPTION of __________. stability trim list flashpoint
In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________. final topping off is occurring hoses are being disconnected hoses are being blown down you first start to receive fuel
The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he/she knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment of what time period? 1 year 3 years 2 years 5 years
Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________. vapors from leaving the tank vent air from entering the tank vent oil from flowing out of the tank vent flames on deck from entering the tank vent
A flame screen __________. prevents the passage of flammable vapors permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank permits the passage of vapor but not of flame prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________. in the midships house at the vent header in the pumproom at the main deck manifold
Static electricity may be built up by the __________. settling of solids or water in petroleum spraying or splashing of petroleum flow of petroleum through pipes All of the above.
Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________. repair the hose with a patch place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers replace the hose notify the terminal superintendent
Which of the following terms best defines the spontaneous mixing of a tank's liquid contents when a heavier layer forms above a less dense lower layer? flash over boil off cascading rollover
In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum products, you should __________. increase the air flow into the tank start to load at maximum pressure start to load slowly use the overall method of loading only
Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference? Emergency shutdown procedures Estimated time of finishing cargo Details of transferring and receiving systems Identity of the product to be transferred
When carrying a cargo of asphalt or molten sulfur, which are carried at temperatures of over 300F, one of the biggest dangers is __________. inadequate ullage space explosion of vapors after discharge water in the tanks or pipelines having the cargo too cool
A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display warning signs. These signs must __________. be visible from both sides and from forward and aft be displayed only while transferring cargo and fast to a dock indicate "NO SMOKING" use black lettering on a white background
How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free? With warning signs With flame screens With gooseneck vents With pressure-vacuum relief valves
Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________. warning signs PV valves stop-check valves flame screens
What is acceptable flame screening? A fitted single stainless steel screen of 15 x 15 mesh Two fitted brass screens of 10 x 15 mesh spaced 1/2 inch apart A fitted single brass screen of 10 x 10 mesh A fitted stainless steel screen of 30 x 30 mesh
What must be present in order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system? fuel oxygen ignition All of the above.
What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? Keep the eyelid close. Flush the eye with plenty of water. Apply an ice pack to the eye. Rub the eye area clean.
When discharging clean ballast prior to entering a loading port, what must you do if it is determined the ballast exceeds 15 parts per million of oil? the deballasting must be completed only after "load on top" has been completed the deballasting must be completely discharged in order to load the deballasting must be terminated automatically the deballasting must be stopped until the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate
When planning the loading or discharging of a VLCC (100,000 DWT+) what is the most important consideration? Draft and trim Rate of discharging Rate of loading Limits of the bending moments
Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and the deficiency of breathable air in an enclosed space can occur with any of the following conditions. Indicate the condition that will NOT cause asphyxia. When large quantities of cargo vapor is present Where rusting of internal tank surfaces has taken place. When 21% of oxygen is present. Where large quantities of inert gas is present.
What is a enclosure which will withstand ignition of a flammable gas, and which will prevent the transmission of any flame able to ignite a flammable gas, which may be present in the surrounding atmosphere called? gas-safe enclosure primary gas barrier explosion proof a flame proof screen
What can be used to prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a tank container? inert gas a vortex eliminator a combustion stabilizer an oxidizer
Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire? Foam Dry chemicals CO2 All of the above.
What type of gas detection device is used to determine when gassing up is complete? Oxygen meter CO2 meter Methane detector Dew point meter
What must cargo tanks be fitted with to prevent over pressurization when loading liquid petroleum products? equalizing line pressure-vacuum valve overpressurization valve ullage opening
Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo? ICC yellow light. Flashing amber light. Red light. Two orange lights.
What color must the last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of piping before the vessel vapor connection be painted? yellow/red/yellow red/yellow/red hi-visibility yellow international orange
What percent of oxygen content by volume, must each inert gas system be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases? 10% or less 20% or less 15% or less 5% or less
Which of the following describes (auto) ignition temperature? the temperature at which a 1% mixture of the fuel with air will explode the temperature at which a fuel begins to give off explosive vapors the temperature at which no spark or flame is required to ignite gas or vapor the temperature at which a fuel if ignited will continue to burn
A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization? National Fire Protection Association Mine Safety Appliance Association Marine Chemists Association American Chemical Society
Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by __________. the American Bureau of Shipping the Coast Guard the shipyard fire department a certified marine chemist
A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________. certified marine chemist ABS marine surveyor Coast Guard marine inspector port engineer
You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE? The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely. The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility. Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.
You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hot work before sailing. Which statement is TRUE? Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited. The facility operator must notify the Captain of the Port before conducting welding or hotwork. The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.
Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared as which of the following? not safe for personnel not safe for hot work safe for personnel safe for hot work
Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before entering the shipyard? The chief officer. A representative from the vessel's class society. A shoreside gas chemist. A dedicated company representative.
A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by the __________. National Fire Protection Association American Chemical Society Mine Safety Appliance Association Marine Chemists Association
The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________. battery fed approved explosion proof self-contained All of the above.
Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities. After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside. You should always wear a gas mask. A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.
Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank? Removal of corrosion products and sludge Application of degreasing solvents Washing the tank interior with sea water Fresh air ventilation
Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? The natural ventilation through the installed vents is sufficient to provide the proper oxygen content. A tank that has been used to carry hazardous liquids should be tested for oxygen content, toxicity, and explosive gases. The heat of the sun on upper ballast tanks, such as in a bulk carrier, may generate carbon monoxide. You can safely enter the space without a breathing apparatus if the oxygen content exceeds 14%.
Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask. The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before entry. The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours. The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not regenerated.
You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter? 0.15 (%) 0.85 (%) 1.05 (%) 7 (%)
Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free? An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp A three-cell flashlight A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp None of the above
What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good? For the instant that it is made For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch. FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4" FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3" FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3" FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 29'-05", AFT 30'-07". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 540 long tons are loaded in No. 18 hatch. FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-03" FWD 30'-01", AFT 31'-03" FWD 30'-04", AFT 29'-06" FWD 29'-09", AFT 30'-11"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-03", AFT 18'-09". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the new draft if 450 long tons are loaded in No. 16 hatch. FWD 16'-11", AFT 19'-04 2/3" FWD 17'-01", AFT 18'-11 1/4" FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-03 3/4" FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-11 1/4"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch. FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-06" FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-07" FWD 18'-11", AFT 21'-09" FWD 22'-00", AFT 19'-02"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 25'-04", AFT 24'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 634 long tons are discharged from NO. 19 hatch. FWD 25'-00 1/4", AFT 25'-04 1/8" FWD 25'-02 3/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8" FWD 25'-05 1/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8" FWD 25'-10 1/4", AFT 23'-11 3/4"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch. FWD 13'-03 5/8", AFT 15'-03 1/8" FWD 13'-04 3/4", AFT 15'-03 1/4" FWD 13'-05 1/5", AFT 15'-04 3/5" FWD 13'-08 4/5", AFT 15'-08 4/5"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-04", AFT 18'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 765 long tons are discharged from No. 7 hatch. FWD 15'-04 3/4", AFT 18'-04" FWD 15'-11 3/5", AFT 18'-11" FWD 18'-08 2/5", AFT 18'-05" FWD 18'-05 3/4", AFT 18'-10"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-02", AFT 20'-10". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No. 8 hatch. FWD 19'-00.4", AFT 20'-08.6" FWD 18'-10.8", AFT 20'-10.4" FWD 19'-03.4", AFT 20'-05.6" FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 20'-03.4"
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 35 lbs. 785 tons each 820 tons each 880 tons each 900 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs. 155 tons each 170 tons each 190 tons each 200 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs. 1010 tons each 1025 tons each 1050 tons each 1070 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs. 1150 tons each 1180 tons each 1220 tons each 1250 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 43 lbs. 23 tons each 50 tons each 75 tons each 150 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 37.6 lbs. 930 tons each 955 tons each 975 tons each 990 tons each
Using sheet 25 in the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs. 1010 tons each 1025 tons each 1045 tons each 1070 tons each
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN). 460 tons per hatch 520 tons per hatch 690 tons per hatch 730 tons per hatch
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 1550 tons 2920 tons 3010 tons 3515 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 2930 tons 3110 tons 3170 tons 3240 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 3 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 2500 tons 2550 tons 2600 tons 2650 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 24'-10"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 1540 tons 1590 tons 1645 tons 1670 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 2, 6, & 10, while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN) 510 tons per hatch 530 tons per hatch 590 tons per hatch 610 tons per hatch
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 1410 tons 1450 tons 1490 tons 1520 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 1 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN) 2230 tons 2270 tons 2310 tons 2350 tons
There are basically three categories of water level fluctuations on the Great Lakes. What is NOT included as one of these? Seasonal fluctuations Long range fluctuations Controlled outflow fluctuations Short period fluctuations
You are transiting the Straits of Mackinac by way of an improved channel. You have information which indicates that the channel's Federal project depth is 28 ft. Which of the following statements is true with regards to this channel? The maximum depth which may be expected within the limits of the channel is 28 ft. The channel has 28 ft. in the center but lesser depths may exist in the remainder of the channel. The design dredging depth of the channel is 28 ft. The least depth within the limits of the channel is 28 ft.
A channel is stated as having a controlling depth of 38 feet. Which statement is TRUE? The sides of the channel conform to at least 50% of the controlling depth. At least 50% of the channel is cleared to the charted depth. At least 80% of the channel is cleared to the charted depth. 100% of the channel width is clear to 38 feet.
Which basic category of water level fluctuations on the Great Lakes is the most regular? Long-term fluctuations Seasonal fluctuations Short-term fluctuations Outflow fluctuations
On the Great Lakes, the term "controlling depth" means the __________. minimum amount of tail water available behind a dam distance in units of the chart (feet, meters or fathoms) from the reference datum to the bottom least depth within the limits of the channel which restricts the navigation designed dredging depth of a channel constructed by the Corps. of Engineers
Which two Great Lakes are considered hydraulically as one? Lakes Erie - Ontario Lakes Michigan - Huron Lakes Erie - St. Clair Lakes Superior - Huron
Distances on the Great Lakes System are generally expressed in __________. statute miles miles above the head of the passes (AHP) miles above the entrance to the St. Lawrence Seaway (MASLW) nautical miles
Which of the Great Lakes is most affected by short-term Lake level fluctuations? Lake Erie Lake Michigan Lake Superior Lake Huron
Which of the Great Lakes experiences the least amount of water level fluctuation between seasonal high and low water marks? Lake Michigan Lake Superior Lake Erie Lake Huron
Which of the Great Lakes is generally the last to reach its seasonal low and seasonal high water marks? Lake Michigan Lake Huron Lake Superior Lake Ontario
Which of the Great Lakes lies entirely within the United States? Lake St. Clair Lake Superior Lake Michigan Lake Ontario
Which of the Great Lakes generally has the shortest navigation season? Lake Michigan Lake Erie Lake Huron Lake Superior
Assume that your vessel has just entered Lake Michigan via the Straits of Mackinac and is proceeding south to Chicago. Which statement is TRUE with respect to the aids to navigation you will encounter along this route? Aids to navigation are serviced jointly by the U.S. and Canadian Coast Guard. Red buoys should be passed down your starboard side. Green buoys mark the location of wrecks or obstructions which must be passed by keeping the buoy on the right hand. All solid colored buoys are numbered, the red buoys bearing odd numbers and green buoys bearing even numbers.
The Lake Carriers Association and the Canadian Shipowners Association prescribe separation routes for upbound and downbound vessels on the Great Lakes. The recommended courses for these routes are shown on the Great Lakes Charts in the form of __________. black figures over a segmented course line track red or magenta figures over a segmented course line track red figures over a solid course line track green figures over a solid course line track
Nautical charts published by the Canadian Hydrographic service which are referenced in the United States Coast Pilot are identified by __________. the letter "C" in parentheses following the chart number a footnote number an asterisk preceding the chart number the abbreviation "can" preceding the chart number
Assume that your vessel has just entered Lake Erie by way of the Welland Canal and is proceeding in a southwesterly direction. Which statement about the aids to navigation you can expect to encounter along the route is TRUE? Lighted aids, fog signals, and radio beacons maintained by Canada are not included in the Great Lakes Light List. The characteristics of buoys and other aids are as if "returning from seaward" when proceeding in this direction. All aids are maintained by the U.S. Coast Guard, 9th Coast Guard District, Cleveland, Ohio. All red even-numbered buoys should be kept on your port side when proceeding in this direction.
How are aids to navigation on the Great Lakes arranged geographically? In an easterly and southerly direction, except on Lake Erie In a westerly and northerly direction, except on Lake Michigan In an easterly and southerly direction, except on the New York State Barge Canal In a westerly and northerly direction, except on Lake St. Clair
Your vessel is approaching the International Bridge on the St. Marys River. If the gage on the bridge, read from top to bottom, indicates 124 ft. and the IGLD (1955) is 600 ft., determine the actual vertical clearances between the existing water level and the lowest point of the bridge over the channel. 124 feet 476 feet 724 feet 840 feet
The vertical reference for all water levels and bench marks on the Great Lakes - St. Lawrence River System is known as __________. Great Lakes Low Water Datum International Great Lakes Datum North Central Reference Datum Mean Sea Level Datum
Your vessel has been ordered to proceed to the United Grain Growers Wharf at Thunder Bay, Lake Superior, for the purpose of taking on a load of wheat. Which publication(s) would you consult for such information as the length of the wharf, the depth of the water alongside, and the loading capacity at the facility? The United States Coast Pilot #6 The International Guide to Canadian Ports and Facilities The Lake Carriers Association Facilities Directory The Navigational Chart and Light List Vol. VII
Which publication offers information on Great Lakes ice services? National Weather Service, Ice Outlooks Marine Weather Log Light List volume VII U.S. Coast Pilot #6
Who publishes the "Canadian List of Lights, Buoys and Fog Signals"? The U.S. Hydrographic Service The Canadian Coast Guard The U.S. Coast Guard The Canadian Hydrographic Service
Which statement is FALSE with regards to the Great Lakes Light List? The Light List does not contain information on any of the navigational aids maintained by Canada. The Light List should be corrected each week from the appropriate Notice to Mariners. Volume VII does not include information on Class III private aids to navigation. The Light List does not include Coast Guard mooring buoys, special purpose buoys, or buoys marking fish net areas.
Your vessel is underway and approaching an overhead obstruction on Lake Superior. Given the following information, determine the clearance between your vessel and the obstruction. Highest point on vessel: 74 ft. Lowest point of obstruction: 126 (LWD) Monthly lake level: +2 (LWD) International Great Lakes Datum: 600.0 (182.88 meters) 474 feet 400 feet 175 feet 50 feet
A list man would expect to see any of the following light signals EXCEPT __________. two red lights one amber light one white light one green light
Your vessel is on a voyage from Ogdensburg, NY, to Chicago, IL, via the Great Lakes. The date is October 3 of the current year. If your vessel is subject to the load line requirements, using illustration D031DG below, to which of her marks should she be loaded? Illustration D031DG Salt water - Winter Fresh water - Winter Fresh water - Intermediate Salt water - Intermediate
Which statement is TRUE with respect to the load line markings shown in illustration D031DG below? Vessels engaged solely on Great Lakes voyages are not required to show these marks. A vessel displaying these marks may load in the salt waters of the St. Lawrence River. U.S. flag vessels less than 100 feet in length and less than 200 gross tons are not required to show these marks. U.S. flag vessels of 100 gross tons and upward must show these marks.
A vessel is loaded to her summer marks for a voyage from Montreal, Canada to Duluth, MN via the Great Lakes System. The voyage has been estimated to take nine (9) days. If the vessel departs Montreal on September 28th, which of the following statements is TRUE? The vessel is in violation of the load line requirements. The vessel's intermediate load line marks may not be submerged after September 30. The vessel must be at her summer marks when she arrives at Duluth. The vessel must be at her winter marks by the evening of the third day.
What does the line labeled "MS" indicate on the Great Lakes load line model shown in illustration D031DG below? Midsummer Mean sea level Midseason Maximum submergence
Where on a vessel are the load line markings shown in illustration D031DG inscribed? port and starboard sides starboard side stern port side
In illustration D031DG below, what does the single line located directly above the diamond indicate? load line deck line water line freeboard line
On Great Lakes vessels, when do midsummer load lines apply? June 16 through September 16 July 16 through August 30 April 16 through April 30 and September 16 through September 30 May 1 through September 15
Which vessel is exempt from the load line and marking requirements for vessels operating on the Great Lakes System? A 500 GT dry cargo river barge operated continuously between Calumet Hbr Chicago, IL and Burns Hbr, IN A 79-foot, 150 GT pleasure craft operating on the St. Lawrence River A 200 GT passenger vessel operating between Duluth, MN and Munising, MI A 300 GT tank barge operating exclusively on Lake Michigan
Advection fog, a common occurrence on the Great Lakes, forms when __________. frigid arctic air moves across the lakes and becomes saturated cool air contacts warm river currents relatively warm air flows over cooler water air comes in contact with a rapidly cooling land surface
Advection fog holds longest over which portions of the lakes? Southeast Northwest Northeast Southwest
The phenomenon known as a "seiche" is most likely to occur on Lake Erie __________. during the passage of a rapidly moving warm front when the Moon and Sun are in alignment during the months of May through August when strong winds from the Northeast suddenly diminish
Nearly half of all storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin during the period from October through May come from __________. highs which originate in north eastern and eastern Canada lows which originate in the central and western USA lows which originate in north central and western Canada highs which originate in the east and east central USA
Storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin from the west and northwest at a peak in October are the products of pressure systems known as __________. Fata morgana Alberta lows Northwesters Polar highs
Which type of fog is the most dense and widely spread of those that occur on the Great Lakes? Steam fog Lake effect fog Radiation fog Advection fog
Which statement is TRUE concerning weather conditions on the Great Lakes? When a vessel is north of an eastward-moving storm center, changes in the weather are less distinctive than when sailing south of the center. The most destructive storms usually come from the northwest or north. When a vessel is south of an eastward-moving storm center, the approach of the low is evidenced by winds from the north to northeast. Thunderstorms are most likely to develop from November through April.
Which statement concerning storm surges on the Great Lakes is FALSE? They are common along the deeper areas of the lakes. They cause rapid differences in levels between one end of the lake and the other. The greatest water level difference occurs when the wind is blowing along the axis of the lake. If the wind subsides rapidly, a seiche effect will most likely occur.
A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is south of an approaching eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________. a southwest to west wind a falling barometer lowering clouds and drizzle rain or snow
On the Great Lakes, winter storms compound the ice threat by bringing a variety of wind, wave, and weather problems on an average of every __________. four days three days five days two days
Fog can form in any season on the Great Lakes, but it is most likely to occur over open waters in __________. winter and early spring spring and early summer autumn and early winter summer and early autumn
What is NOT characteristic of the conditions which would be experienced by a vessel located southeast of an approaching eastward-moving storm center on the Great Lakes? Lowering clouds Rain or snow Falling barometer A westerly wind
"Seiche" is defined as a(n) __________. higher than normal high water or lower than normal low water unusually strong storm system which approaches the Great Lakes System generally from the Northeast oscillation caused by the diminishing of forces which cause lake level fluctuations lake current which is predominant during the spring and fall navigation season on the Great Lakes
On the Great Lakes, short-term fluctuations in water levels may be a result of any of the following EXCEPT __________. seiches sudden changes in barometric pressure strong winds below normal rain fall
On which of the Great Lakes would shore ice be the most pronounced? Lake Huron Lake Superior Lake Erie Lake Michigan
Generally speaking, the more destructive storms occurring on the Great Lakes usually come from the __________. northeast or east northwest or north southeast or south southwest or west
A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is southeast of an eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________. a northeast wind rain or snow lowering clouds and drizzle a falling barometer
Which statement concerning storm surges on the Great Lakes is FALSE? They cause rapid differences in levels between one end of the lake and the other. If the wind subsides rapidly, a seiche effect will most likely occur. The greatest water level difference occurs when the wind is blowing along the longitudinal axis of the lake. They are common along the deeper areas of the lakes.
Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________. limit the ascent rate stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position limit the amount of cable on the drum stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit
The light on a personal flotation device on an OSV must be replaced __________. when it is no longer serviceable each year after installation every six months when the power source is replaced
The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________. week two months three months six months
The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________. posted with a list of persons assigned to the rescue boat kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching surfaced with a nonskid texture roped off to prevent unnecessary access
On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached? Three ring life buoys One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV One ring life buoy Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV
On an OSV, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life jacket? For use during fire drills For use during boat drills To replace a damaged life jacket At no time
The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a __________. radar reflector searchlight sea anchor fishing kit
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________. compass one can opener one 50 meter line All of the above.
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________. one 50 meter line one first aid kit buoyant oars All of the above.
Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV, how many must be equipped with a water light? 8 4 2 1
What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean service? 4 8 12 16
The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________. 1 knot 10 knot 2 knot 5 knot
The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on an OSV vessel must be stowed __________. so that it is accessible from the pilothouse of the vessel in an inside passageway so that it will float free if the vessel sinks in an approved bracket
Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going OSV carry? Class C Class B Category I Class A
Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable of moving the rudder __________. by a required auxiliary steering system under emergency conditions when duplicated main steering power systems are provided at one-half the maximum astern speed without damage from 35 on one side to 30 on the other side, in no more than 28 seconds, while making maximum headway from 15 on one side to 15 on the other side, in 30 seconds at 7 knots, or one-half the maximum speed
Each OSV must carry __________. at least one life buoy on each side of the vessel fitted with a buoyant life line at least 12 rocket parachute flares one category I 406 Mhz satellite EPIRB All of the above.
The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________. Minerals Management Service lease operator person-in-charge of the unit Coast Guard
For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________. heaving line shoulder type line throwing gun spring-loaded line thrower hand thrown buoyant line
Each EPIRB required on an OSV shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________. month week two weeks two months
The immersion suit requirements for OSVs apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean __________. above 20 degrees North and below 20 degrees South above 25 degrees North and below 25 degrees South above 30 degrees North and below 30 degrees South above 32 degrees North and below 32 degrees South
Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be __________. marked with the name of the unit Coast Guard Approved equipped with a waterlight All of the above.
Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replacement power source must be replaced __________. every six months after initial installation every 24 months after initial installation every 12 months after initial installation on or before the expiration date of the power source
Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws? Hazardous substances Garbage Oil All of the above.
Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations? pumping leaking spilling All of the above.
In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) __________. uninspected towing vessel uninspected passenger vessel under 100 GT U.S. government vessel in non-commercial service recreational yacht
The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels __________. only on the western rivers and international waters only on international voyages outside U.S. territorial waters on all international and inland waters only on the Great Lakes and international waters
Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/78? A 26-foot tug and tow An uninspected 35-foot passenger vessel A 20-foot sailing vessel A Navy Destroyer
The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters? International waters Great Lakes only Inland waters only All of the above.
A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 __________. in the waters of those countries not signatory to MARPOL outside of the navigable waters of the United States A U.S. vessel in ocean service is ALWAYS subject to MARPOL. outside of 25 nautical miles from nearest land
Which international body is responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL)? International Maritime Organization International Association of Shipping Maritime Advisory Council Association of Seafaring Nations
While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. When should these entries be made? before the end of the voyage no later than 24 hours after disposal of the garbage at the time the garbage was disposed before arriving at your next port
Under the Pollution Regulations, how long must garbage disposal records be retained onboard for? until the end of the voyage two years until the next Coast Guard inspection one year
Which statement is TRUE? You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility. You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship. You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into the sea more than 25 miles offshore. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped.
Under the Pollution Regulations, which action is required when you dump garbage in to the sea? make an entry in the Official Logbook No action is required if you are more than 25 miles from land and no plastic materials are dumped. notify the U.S. Coast Guard keep a record for two years
You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________. official number Master home port next port-of-call
Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________. collecting and discharging garbage segregating the different types of shipboard waste reducing the amount of shipboard waste disposing waste from marine sanitation devices
You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________. cubic meters both kilos and pounds both cubic meters and cubic feet barrels of 55 gallon capacity
You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water latitude and longitude only
Which statement is TRUE? You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped. You need not keep a record of dumping ground garbage in to the sea more than 25 miles offshore. You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility.
Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation. Garbage accumulation on board has exceeded storage space. The garbage to be discharged will sink. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.
You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea? 3 25 12 Must be retained aboard
Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea? 3 nm 6 nm 12 nm 25 nm
You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is required? 48 hours 24 hours 12 hours Advance notification is not required.
If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, which of the following cannot be discharged anywhere at sea? metal glass plastic paper
No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when __________. less than 12 nautical miles from nearest land less than 12 nautical miles from the United States less than 25 nautical miles from nearest land in the navigable waters of the United States
According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________. grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land incinerating offshore grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 25 nautical miles from nearest land discharging when at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land
A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged? Glass ground to less than 1" Metal ground to less than 1" Paper products Food waste
Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? Gulf of Saint Lawrence Sargasso Sea Great Lakes Red Sea
Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than __________. 1" 1-1/4" 1-1/2" 2"
At what distance from shore may plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel? 25 miles from shore 3 miles from shore 12 miles from shore None of the above are correct.
You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side? 6 nm 25 nm 12 nm Must be retained aboard
How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard? Call an all hands meeting before sailing. Have each person read and sign a copy of the regulations. Keep placards prominently posted. Give each crewmember a copy of ANNEX V of MARPOL.
You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea? 6 nm 25 nm 3 nm 12 nm
Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea? 6 nm 25 nm 12 nm 3 nm
Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal? 6 12 24 48
Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into the sea? 25 nm 12 nm 6 nm 3 nm
If you are operating on the Inland Waters of the United States, which of the following may you discharge overboard? metal bottles dunnage None of the above
A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged? Dunnage Metal Crockery Glass
A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged? Rags ground to less than 1" Paper ground to less than 1" Food waste, not comminuted or ground None of the above
What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash? 25 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 10 nautical miles 5 nautical miles
Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________. 12 nautical miles from nearest land 5 nautical miles from nearest land 25 nautical miles from nearest land None of the above
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Octanol Cetyl-Eicosyl methacrylate Acetonitrile Hog grease
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Sulfur (molten) Latex Dodecyl methacrylate Asphalt
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Acetonitrile Sulfur (molten) Dodecanol Trimethyl phosphite
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Formaldehyde (>50%) Methyl ethyl ketone Nonane Sulfur (molten)
According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________. a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented an explanation and purpose of the plan the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators installed aboard the vessel all information ordinarily provided in the Oil Record Book
Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? Reporting requirements List of individuals required to respond Planned exercises Removal equipment list
Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? A list specifying who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified. A list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports. A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State Administrators responsible for receiving and processing incident reports. A list of personnel duty assignments.
When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. one month before the anniversary date of the plan six months before the end of the approval period and cannot be implemented without approval and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submission
Which of the following is required to have a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above, or other ship of 400 gross tons and above any barge or ship constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above
What is the approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? two years three years four years five years
At what frequency do Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan to be reviewed? annually once every two years once every four years once every five years
Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________. only once every five years, with a letter submitted six months before expiration annually by the owner, with a letter submitted six months before expiration and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, six months before expiration annually by the owner, with a letter submitted to the Coast Guard within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval
A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan vapor recovery procedures plan oil discharge plan synthetic plastic discharge plan
Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to U.S. Regulations? Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. All of the above.
Which vessel is required to have a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above, or other ship of 400 gross tons or above any barge or other ship which is constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at or above how many gross registered tons? 300 gross registered tons 150 gross registered tons 400 gross registered tons 100 gross registered tons
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)? 1 2 3 4
According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves? Manual cut off switch A fusible link Electrical cut off switch A water spray actuator
U.S. regulations require all tankships of 150 GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and above, to prepare and maintain which of the following? a USCG approved oil discharge plan a USCG approved vapor recovery procedures plan a USCG approved shipboard oil pollution emergency plan a USCG approved synthetic plastic discharge plan
Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from mandatory requirements on ballast water management for control of non-indigenous species in waters of the United States? A crude oil tanker engaged in the coastwise trade. A vessel engaged in the foreign export of Alaskan North Slop Crude Oil. A passenger vessel equipped with a USCG approved system designed to kill aquatic organisms in ballast water. United States Navy frigate.
When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible? Credentialed officers only Owners only Master only Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation
Regardless of local requirements, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to which of the following agencies? National Response Center (USCG) Environmental Protection Agency Minerals Management Service All of the above.
Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations? Sludge Oil mixed with dredge spoil Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes Petroleum and fuel oil
What does the term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations mean? oil refuse fuel oil sludge All of the above.
A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be federally punished with which of the following? imprisonment fine suspension or revocation of tankerman's document All of the above.
When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using which of the following? chemical agents skimmers sawdust straw
If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, how long may be imprisoned for? 1 year 2 years 3 years 5 years
The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to __________. 5 years 3 years 2 years 1 years
The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________. too expensive for common use generally safe to sea life authorized only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator the most common method used in the United States
It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________. suction equipment skimmers a boom chemical agents
As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST? Call the Coast Guard. Inform the Environmental Protection Agency. Rig a boom for recovery. Alert the fire department.
When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________. dissolve the oil in the water sink the oil facilitate the removal of the pollutant from the water absorb the oil for easy removal
In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________. sorbent blocker chemical agent None of the above
After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, what is the FIRST action that should be taken? contain the spread of the oil have the vessel move out of the spill area apply straw or sawdust on the oil throw grains of sand into the oil
A cargo hose is marked with which of the following? safety relief valve setting bursting pressure maximum temperature maximum working pressure
How is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly determined? three times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head twice the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements? Metallic reinforcement A working pressure that is more than the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head Identification markings A bursting pressure that is at least four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
According to U.S. regulations, normally, where are manholes in LFG located? in the ends of each tank above the weather deck in the expansion trunk of each tank there are no requirements in the regulation
According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene? Closed None Open Restricted
According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of __________. 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer one half the designed working pressure 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
According to U.S. regulations what is the maximum allowable working pressure (MAWP) for each hose assembly used for transferring oil? at least 600 psi (4.14 MPa) more than the sum of the pressure of the relief valve setting more than the maximum pump pressure when a relief valve is not installed at least four times the sum for the pressure of the relief valve setting
According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene? Restricted Closed Open None
According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves? A fusible link A water spray actuator Electrical cut off switch Manual cut off switch
A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly moving flame through the piping is called a __________. detonation blocker detonation arrestor flame arrestor flame screen
For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________. three barrels four barrels six barrels eight barrels
Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"? It must be located at the bilge and ballast pump control station. It must be located in a conspicuous place in the wheelhouse. It is required on all vessels. All of the above.
Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations aboard a tankship? The bosun A credentialed officer who holds a tankerman-PIC endorsement The Master The pumpman who has a tankerman assistant endorsement
Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board? 215-foot naval auxiliary vessel 75-foot towing vessel 50-foot cabin cruiser used for pleasure only 150-foot unmanned tank barge
To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must hold/be which of the following? a valid officer credential for inspected vessels a letter from the company stating his qualification be 30 years old a tankerman-PIC endorsement
Which of the following best describes the requirement of the emergency pump control when used as the emergency shutdown on tank vessels? stop the flow of oil at the main deck manifold prevent the oil from leaving the shore facility prevent the oil from siphoning through the pump None of the above
What can be done to prevent small oil spills on deck from going overboard? plugging the sounding pipes closing the lids on the vents driving wooden plugs into the vents plugging the scuppers
What do pollution regulations require of each scupper in an enclosed deck area? soft rubber plug mechanical means of closing wooden plug two-piece soft patch
Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold __________. three barrels four barrels six barrels eight barrels
A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1,1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe? 1 gallon 5 gallons 1 barrel 2 barrels
Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels? Three Four Twelve Sixteen
You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area have containment capacity for at least one half barrel are opened and the flame screen replaced
You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area are not obstructed by on-deck cargo are opened and the flame screen replaced have containment capacity for at least one barrel
You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________. are opened and the flame screen replaced have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area have portable containment capacity for at least 5 gallons are not obstructed by on-deck cargo
Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends? A 30,000 dwt ton oil barge An 18,000 dwt ton tanker constructed in 1998 A 5,000 dwt ton coastal tanker A 22,000 dwt ton tanker operated after Jan. 1, 1999
What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974? At least 5 gallons At least 1 barrel At least 2 barrels At least 3 barrels
Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil? Mixing it with dispersants before draining it overboard Adding sinking agents and discharging it into the water Placing it in proper disposal facilities Draining it overboard when the vessel gets underway
You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board? 25 (%) 50 (%) 75 (%) 100 (%)
A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________. a discharge outlet for the ballast system on each side of the weather deck one portable adapter for a shore connection to the ballast line a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception facility All of the above.
What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures? A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility A portable system to discharge the slops overboard A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only __________. on the outgoing tide during the hours of darkness if discharge is led to a shore tank or barge as much as is necessary
What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures? A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the __________. shell of the tank is of the same thickness or greater than that of the vessel's hull tanks were designated, installed, or constructed for fuel oil carrying before July 1, 1974 fuel has a flash point above 180F tank is 18 inches inboard of the hull structure
What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker? Oil Transfer Procedures Manual IOPP Certificate Certificate of Inspection 46 CFR Part 15 (Manning)
What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures? Any special procedures for topping off tanks The number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel A line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping
The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain __________. a description of the deck discharge containment system a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping special procedures for topping off tanks the name of each person designated as the person in charge of transfer
Where are the transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted? in the upper pumproom flat in the pilothouse where they can be easily seen or readily available in the officer's lounge
During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed? The tankerman The oiler The designated person in charge The senior able seaman
The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI. What will this record contain? the name of each person currently designated as a person in charge hose information including the minimum design burst pressure for each hose the date and result of the most recent test on the system relief valves All of the above.
The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________. hose information not marked on the hose cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection the name of each person designated as a person in charge
An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least __________. one barrel two barrels five barrels ten barrels
The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________. kept at the shoreside hose connection during transfer on a tug standing by available by contract with the shore facility kept in a protected shoreside location readily accessible
The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain __________. a list of each port of discharge a current crew list the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation a line diagram of the vessel's transfer piping
Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. This system must include __________. a spare pump in case the main pump is inoperative approved oil-water separating equipment at least one outlet accessible from the weather deck a fixed or portable containment system at the shore connection
You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________. at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck at least two pumps that may be put in line containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet
You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________. on-deck portable tank forepeak tank deep tank after peak tank
The the U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. Where must these emergency means be operable from? engine room bridge emergency operating station of the person-in-charge usual operating station of the person-in-charge
Which of the following must be included in the "oil transfer procedures" required by U.S Pollution Prevention Regulations? the emergency cleanup and containment procedures to be followed in the event of an oil spill any special procedures inherent to that particular vessel for topping off tanks the location, size, and barrel capacity of each tank that is capable of carrying oil All of the above.
An individual must be which of the following to serve as the person in charge of oil cargo transfer operations onboard a self-propelled tank vessel? be licensed only be 30 years old have a letter from the company stating his qualification be a certified tankerman (PIC)
Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST? Close the valve on the tank vent line. Signal the shore control point to shut down. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.
While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST? Notify the Coast Guard. Stop the fueling. Determine the source of the oil. Notify the terminal superintendent.
If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST? Notify the person in charge of the shore facility Shut down the transfer operation Close the valves at the transfer manifold Sound the fire alarm
You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________. unless radio communication is set up between the vessels under any circumstances unless authorized by the Captain of the Port unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks
How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board? One week Two weeks One month Three months
How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers? 1 week from date of signature 2 weeks from date of signature 1 month from date of signature 6 months from date of signature
While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. What action should you take? shut down operations repair the leak with duct tape reduce the rate of transfer apply dispersants to the sheen
When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________. must be in writing before it takes effect includes a statement of each condition requiring corrective action is always effective immediately All of the above.
What is the FIRST action to take if you detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging? have the pumpman check the discharge piping try to find out where the oil is coming from shut down operations call the Master
The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer? The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping The person in charge on the vessel The person in charge at the facility Both persons in charge
Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel? The manager of the shore facility The U.S. Coast Guard The person(s) designated in-charge The American Bureau of Shipping
How long must the operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for? 10 days 1 month 6 months 1 year
Who must sign the Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations? Master of the vessel Captain of the Port person(s) in charge All of the above.
Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested and inspected at specified intervals by __________. a representative of the Captain of the Port a representative of the American Bureau of Shipping the operator of the vessel or facility a representative of the National Cargo Bureau
During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure of at least __________. 100 pounds per square inch the relief valve setting pressure the shoreside pump discharge pressure 1½ times the maximum allowable working pressure
You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid pressure of __________. 70 psi 105 psi 140 psi 210 psi
33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning __________. operation of nautical school ships vessel construction and design oil and hazardous material transfer operations lifesaving and firefighting equipment
Who has the authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations? Captain of the Port Area Commander nearest Coast Guard office Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection
Application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted to the __________. Commandant District Commander nearest Coast Guard office Captain of the Port
How far in advance must applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted? the day before the operations 5 days before the operations 10 days before the operations 30 days before the operations
Each pressure gauge used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within __________. 1 percent 3 percent 5 percent 10 percent
What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling? 6 4 3 A bolt must be used in every hole.
How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI (American National Standards Institute) coupling? 2 4 6 8
What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling? A bolt must be used in every hole. 6 4 3
While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel, the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. You should __________. continue transfer operations repair the leak with duct tape reduce the rate of transfer immediately shut down operations
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of inspection? paper issued by the Coast Guard marine inspector which allows you to conduct a transfer operation application you must complete and submit to the Coast Guard to have an inspector visit your vessel document signed by vessel and shore facility persons-in-charge declaring that all transfer requirements have been met annual report submitted by vessel personnel to the Coast Guard declaring that all transfer equipment has been inspected
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin? The designated person-in-charge Any local Coast Guard representative The captain of the port The senior deck officer present
What type of information is found in 33 CFR part 156? oil and hazardous material transfer operations lifesaving and firefighting equipment vessel construction and design operation of nautical school ships
Which of the following applies in determining if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility? vessel and bunker facility must be independently inspected by the designated persons-in-charge the bunker facility must be inspected by the designated person-in-charge of the vessel and vice versa for the vessel the vessel is responsible to provide an inspected oil hose vessel and bunker facility must be inspected by a representative of the Coast Guard Captain of the Port
What shall the transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships contain? the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation a current crew list a list of each port of discharge a line diagram of the vessel transfer piping
According to the U.S. regulations, what must be agreed upon by the person-in-charge of transfer operations, both ashore and on the vessel? the status of the oily water separator whether or not the transferring ship is a "Public Vessel of the United States" the identity of the product to be transferred the size of the slop tank required under 155.330
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), when may a person serve as the person-in-charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer operations? Whenever the vessel is short of manpower. When authorized by the Captain of the Port. Whenever the facility is unmanned. When licensed as a certified refueling officer.
During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed? The senior able seaman The designated person in charge The oiler The tankerman
U.S. regulations require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following criteria are met? the transfer system is connected to an automatic back pressure shutoff nozzle the transfer system is connected to a flexible overflow fuel hose all necessary components of the transfer system are lined up before the transfer begins all unnecessary parts of the transfer system are open and drained
To allow for the rise or fall in tide and for change in draft of a tankship during cargo transfer, cargo hoses must be suspended with __________. topping lifts and runners tied off to winches slings or saddles placed at 25-foot (8 meter) intervals enough slack in their bight All of the above.
According to U.S. regulations, if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its fabric, when may it be used to transfer oil? after a drip pan is placed under the leak never the hose must be replaced after the hose leak is securely wrapped after the terminal foreman is notified
According to U.S. regulations, how often are you are required to test cargo discharge piping? 6 months 18 months 24 months 12 months
According to U.S. regulations, when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be which of the following? fitted with an anti-siphon device fitted with a blank flange sealed or lashed closed lined up for immediate use
What does Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention Regulations concern? pumping equipment design oil and hazmat transfer operations large oil transfer shoreside facilities cargo vessel design
What does the term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, mean? greatest distance between two opposite cargo tank bulkheads diagonal measurement of a cargo tank length of any individual cargo space, from bulkhead to bulkhead length from the forward bulkhead of the forwardmost cargo tanks to the after bulkhead of the aftermost cargo tanks
A oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless which of the following conditions is present? is within "Special Areas" defined in Regulation 1 (10) of Annex I to MARPOL 73/78 at anchor or stopped discharging at an instantaneous rate of oil content not exceeding 30 liters per nautical mile more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature? Type I Type II Type III Type IV
According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard? U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length Foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters U.S. Vessels 26 feet or more in length
In the event of an oil spill a report must be made to which of the following entities? local police U.S. Corps of Engineers local fire department U.S. Coast Guard
Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE? The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the cleanup of the spill. The Department of Interior is responsible for the cleanup of the spill. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guard. A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone.
Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________. the galley trash can sewage an oily mixture of one part per million All of the above.
The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________. straw booms skimmers chemical dispersants
When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge? Throw sand on the water to sink the oil. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.
Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill? It will sink more rapidly than crude oil. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill. It is not covered by the pollution laws. It does little harm to marine life.
Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills? A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative. They usually stay in a small area. They usually disappear quickly.
Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________. equipment failure major casualties unforeseeable circumstances human error
Single hull vessels operating exclusively on the Great Lakes must be dry docked at intervals not to exceed __________. 24 months 60 months 12 months 48 months
By regulation, your cargo vessel must have __________. sufficient facilities for the crew to wash their clothes a wash basin in each room separate toilet facilities for engineers where their number exceeds six All of the above.
The largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space is __________. 6 11 12 16
What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel? Two Four Six Eight
Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE? The hospital may be used for disciplinary confinement if it is not being used for treatment. The hospital space must have both a bathtub and shower. If a ship has a crew of forty-five who do not have their own room, the hospital must have four berths. A hospital is required on all vessels with a crew of 12 or more if it makes overnight voyages.
The regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel are found in __________. 46 CFR subchapter B 46 CFR subchapter S 46 CFR subchapter I 46 CFR subchapter T
The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection? One B-I extinguisher One B-II extinguisher One B-II and one C-II extinguisher One B-V extinguisher
The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection? One B-I extinguisher One B-II extinguisher One B-II and one C-II extinguisher One B-V extinguisher
In the subchapter for Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels of the Code of Federal Regulations, what is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed? 5 8 12 15
A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________. 2-1/2 gallons of foam 8 gallons of foam 10 gallons of foam 12 gallons of foam
For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is required to be which of the following? 35 psi 100 psi 70 psi 50 psi
What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher? 2 pound dry chemical 2-1/2 gallon foam 4 pound carbon dioxide All of the above.
The number of fire axes required to be carried on a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT and on an international voyage is __________. 4 6 8 12
On a vessel of 900 GT, the minimum number of fire axes required is __________. 2 4 6 8
The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________. one A-I two A-IIs one B-II one C-II
How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes? 4 6 2 8
The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is one __________. B-I B-II C-I C-II
The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is __________. one C-I none required one A-I one B-I
Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system? Any compartment containing explosives Enclosed spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles" Any compartment adjacent to one containing explosives All of the above.
The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________. one B-II one C-II two B-II's or C-II's two A-II's or B-II's
On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable? B-III C-II A-II All of the above.
On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within __________. 1 minute 2 minutes 4 minutes 6 minutes
In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT __________. in connection with the fire-detecting system to ventilate the space in connection with the water sprinkler system to run the emergency wiring to the space
The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over __________. 80F 95F 130F 150F
CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________. NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2 have an audible alarm be automatically operated by a heat actuator All of the above.
Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed __________. 150 lbs 300 lbs 450 lbs 600 lbs
The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to __________. one pound of CO2 per square foot of deck area one pound of CO2 per cubic foot of space the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 30 the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 100
You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space? 1674 2511 3348 5022
On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT? 4 2 1 3
The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________. on the main deck as close as possible to the house on each level of the accommodation space to each side of the vessel
On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT? 3 2 4 1
The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________. as close as possible to the house on each level of the accommodation space to each side of the vessel on the main deck
Aboard a cargo vessel, the carbon dioxide supply used in a fixed extinguishing system MUST at least be sufficient for what space(s)? all cargo spaces the engine room and largest cargo space all the spaces of a vessel the space requiring the largest amount
The letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate the __________. class of fire and location aboard vessel extinguishing agent and location aboard vessel class of fire and size of the extinguisher extinguishing agent and relative size of the extinguisher
The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________. not less than 50 feet in length made of steel or bronze wire rope corrosion resistant All of the above.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"? The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. All of the above.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"? The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing system. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system. All of the above.
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower? 5 4 3 2
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower? 5 4 3 2
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 1200 brake horsepower? 1 2 3 4
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2500 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3300 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________. small passenger vessels all deep draft vessels fishing industry vessels small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes
An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________. near the wheelhouse so as to float free with the vessel's emergency equipment as far forward as possible
Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________. 39Fahrenheit or less 44Fahrenheit or less 49Fahrenheit or less 59Fahrenheit or less
Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________. emergency towing fire on board minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding rescuing an individual from the water
Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel? Steering casualty Loss of propulsion power Emergency towing Recovering an individual from the water
A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________. before sailing on reporting day if it occurs within normal work hours within one week within 24 hours
A documented oceangoing fishing vessel is required to have emergency instructions posted if it __________. exceeds 49 feet in length is over 25 gross tons has sleeping accommodations carries more than 16 persons
A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________. a life line a hydrostatic release smoke flares a signal mirror
After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________. inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack approved rescue boat buoyant cushion for each person on board inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached
The hydrostatic release on the inflatable liferafts on a fishing vessel must be __________. replaced annually tested monthly serviced annually overhauled quarterly
You are operating 10 miles offshore with three people aboard. What kind of survival craft must you carry? A life float No survival craft is required. An inflatable buoyant apparatus An inflatable liferaft with a coastal pack
The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing vessel must safely accommodate __________. the number of people required by the certificate of inspection the entire crew all of the people aboard None of the Above
An undocumented vessel with 10 people aboard and operating 25 miles off the seacoast must carry a survival craft of the __________. life float type inflatable buoyant apparatus type buoyant apparatus type All of the above.
What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned? Life float Buoyant apparatus Ring buoy Immersion suit
The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________. EPIRB inflatable liferaft buoyant apparatus life float
Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one immersion suit, exposure suit, or life preserver for each __________. person working on deck person aboard crew member None of the above are correct.
Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is intended while he or she is __________. in his or her berthing area, only at work, only BOTH at work and in his or her berthing area None of the above
On a commercial fishing vessel, a wearable personal flotation device must be marked with the name of the __________. vessel assigned individual owner of the device Any of the above.
You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached? 60 feet 70 feet 80 feet 90 feet
Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board? 6 red hand flares 1 electric distress light 3 orange smoke signals 3 red parachute flares
A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's outfit, must have all of the following in the outfit except a __________. combustible gas indicator fire axe self-contained breathing apparatus flashlight
A vessel must have at least two fireman's outfits aboard if she __________. is under foreign articles is documented is over 100 gross tons has more than 49 people aboard
Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n) __________. radar reflector electronic position-fixing device deviation table copy of the Sailing Directions
You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board? Gyro compass Magnetic compass VHF radiotelephone Electronic position fixing device
Radar reflectors are required for __________. sail-propelled fishing vessels all fishing vessels of less than 200 GT wooden hull fishing vessels with a poor radar echo all fishing vessels over 39 feet in length
The bilge pump on a fishing vessel __________. must be capable of pumping at least 450 gpm may be used as a fire pump must be portable if there are more than 4 watertight compartments must be fixed if the vessel exceeds 12 meters in length
Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly? EPIRB Dated batteries Inflatable PFD's Hydrostatic releases
A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________. has berthing and galley facilities is a workboat and her mother ship carries an EPIRB does not have berthing facilities None of the above are correct.
Every fishing vessel required to have a general alarm system must test it __________. once every day that the vessel is operated prior to operation of the vessel once every week that the vessel is operated Both B and C
Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to the __________. National Fisheries Service Coast Guard Occupational Safety and Health Administration vessel owner or owner's agent
The Master or other vessel representative must contact the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of a(n) __________. accident which requires $(SA)2500 of repairs injury which requires first aid grounding All of the above.
A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast Guard if it involves __________. an injury requiring only first aid loss of equipment which doesn't reduce the vessel's maneuverability loss of life $(SA)10,000 in property damage
You are in charge of a fishing vessel with 18 individuals on board. You are required to conduct drills and give safety instruction at least once __________. before you begin fishing every 15 days every week every month
A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line? one two three four
Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation? Vessel takes on water due to the hatches being left open in heavy rain. Vessel takes on water by the propeller shaft due to failure of the stern gland. Vessel heels until water enters a hatch. Vessel in collision floods through a damaged area above the waterline.
Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. The coaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except an exposed forecastle deck) must be at least __________. 6" high 12" high 24" high Not required
In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________. 39Fahrenheit or less 44Fahrenheit or less 49Fahrenheit or less 59Fahrenheit or less
A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must carry an inflatable liferaft with a __________. SOLAS B pack coastal pack SOLAS A pack small vessel pack
The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________. secured inside the wheelhouse tested annually secured in the emergency locker tested monthly
The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________. tested monthly secured in the emergency locker tested annually secured inside the wheelhouse
Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________. 2 2 STARBOARD 3 4
Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel? fire ax flashlight rigid helmet flame safety lamp
A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over __________. 1,400 GT 1,500 GT 1,600 GT 1,700 GT
An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________. 20 feet 30 feet 40 feet 50 feet
On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit? Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves Flame safety lamp Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached Combustible gas indicator
Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits? Each fireman's outfit shall contain a fresh-air breathing apparatus. If a vessel carries two outfits, they may be stored in the same location. Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type. All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning vessels over 1600 gross tons certificated for service solely on the Great Lakes? They must carry a deep-sea hand lead. They must have gyro compasses. They must have magnetic compasses. All of the above.
A vessel in Great Lakes service shall carry anchors in accordance with standards established by the __________. U.S. Coast Guard American Bureau of Shipping Canadian Coast Guard underwriter of the vessel
Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at least once __________. in each week a month in every 6 months in every 12 months
Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly? Engineering officer assigned Master Deck officer assigned Chief Engineer
On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________. fire pumps be tested by starting within 12 hours prior to departure the entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours prior to departure the emergency generator and lighting system be tested by starting and operating within 12 hours prior to departure a lifeboat drill be held within 12 hours prior to departure
Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________. 1 hour 4 hours 8 hours 12 hours
What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel? Official Crew List Company Mission Statement Maneuvering Characteristics Certificate of Inspection
Maritime Administration personnel may be allowed in the pilothouse upon the responsibility of the __________. officer in charge of the watch most senior person present from the Maritime Administration Chief Officer Navigator
Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name? Lifeboat oar Immersion suit Hand-portable fire extinguisher Life preserver
When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear? When working near or over the water When it is approved by the Coast Guard When stowed away from the ring buoys A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket.
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency All of the above.
Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________. 1/2 inch 1 inch 1-1/2 inches 2 inches
Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________. 1/2 inch 1 inch 1-1/2 inches 2 inches
According to regulations when, if ever, may cargo hatches on Great Lakes vessels, with more than 6 feet of freeboard, be left uncovered or open while the vessel is being navigated? If a Mate deems it necessary for ship's maintenance At the discretion of the Master, for reasonable purposes The hatch may never be uncovered On the authority of the Bosun
The Great Lakes Edition of the Notice to Mariners is published __________. weekly by the 9th Coast Guard District monthly by the Army Corps of Engineers monthly by the Naval Oceanographic office biweekly by the Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard
It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) a device to automatically return all drip to the engine air intakes no means whatsoever a pump leading to a point outside the hull a separate pipe leading to the bilges
Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) must have a double fan installation must be approved for marine use are permitted on vessels less than 65 feet carrying not more than 12 passengers must be filled with fresh water
Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than 65 feet in length, carrying not more than 12 passengers if __________. they are rated at not more than 4.5 horsepower they have a self-contained fuel system and are installed on an open deck it is not practicable to supply water to the engine All of the above.
What is required for a dry exhaust pipe? (small passenger vessel regulations) Noncombustible hangers and supports An automatic damper Insulation from combustible material A rain spray and spray cap
Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) rated for at least 12 volts of the alternating current type mounted as high as practicable above the bilges All of the above.
Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted as high above the bilges as possible to __________. prevent accidental ignition of any gasoline vapors that may have accumulated in the bilges make them more accessible for repairs keep them cool when the vessel is underway keep them dry when the bilges are full of water
Switchboards shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) Grounded to the main engine on a wooden hulled boat. Watertight. The dead-front type, totally enclosed Equipped with switch locks
Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be __________. locked up on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times readily accessible for use inaccessible to passengers
Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________. not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to another be kept as high and as far inboard as possible have some means to make them watertight All of the above.
Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________. should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency stations should be used when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat drills may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life preservers
How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry? 1 2 3 4
A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________. 49 passengers 6 passengers 12 passengers 36 passengers
What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel? It be installed to the satisfaction of the cognizant OCMI It be operated at one and one half times normal operating pressure for ten minutes. Safety and/or relief valves settings be checked at two and one half times normal operating pressures. All of the above.
On small passenger vessels after loading and prior to departure, the master shall determine the vessel complies with all stability requirements in which of these documents? Load Line Certificate Certificate of Inspection stability letter All of the above.
On Subchapter T small passenger vessels, after loading and prior to departure, the master shall determine the vessel complies with all stability requirements in which of these documents? stability letter Load Line Certificate Certificate of Inspection All of the above.
A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes __________. any special conditions or restrictions on her operation the minimum fire extinguishing equipment, lifejackets, survival and rescue craft she must carry the name of the managing operator All of the above.
The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________. be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration be stowed to pay out freely if the vessel sinks have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the capacity of the lifesaving gear is 50 persons or greater All of the above.
Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations) A vessel operating on the ocean within 5 miles from the coastline. A vessel operating within 3 miles from the coastline in the Gulf of Mexico. A vessel operating beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes. A vessel operating exclusively on inland waters.
Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the deck officer in the pilothouse, where should there be an additional crew member on watch? always in the pilothouse in or near the pilothouse on lookout on the fore deck on the bridge wing
Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently displayed? A 200 GT vessel carrying more than 50 passengers A 325 GT vessel on a voyage in excess of 8 hours A 550 GT vessel with sleeping accommodations A 1100 GT vessel making daylight excursion trips only
A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes? 6 2 4 1
When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT required to show information on the __________. lifeboats, liferafts, and life preservers portable fire extinguishers fire detection system ventilation systems
General arrangement plans shall be permanently exhibited on all passenger vessels of at least __________. 200 GT and over 500 GT and over 1000 GT and over 1500 GT and over
The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n) __________. A-I fire extinguisher flashlight passenger list showing assigned berths nightstick
A passenger vessel is required to have a supervised patrol when __________. there are passengers berthed on board navigating in excess of eight hours the vessel has substantial wood in its construction there is no automatic fire-detection system installed
On a passenger vessel with stateroom accommodations, which space would NOT be required to be checked by the patrol between 10 pm and 6 am? weather decks pilothouse public spaces with an automatic fire detection system galley
If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least once __________. a watch or once a trip, whichever is shorter a day every week every trip
How many means of escape must be provided from passenger areas on a passenger vessel of 500 GT? One Two Three Two, unless there is an elevator provided
According to the regulations for passenger vessels, a "motor vessel" is one which is propelled by machinery other than steam and is more than __________. 16 ft. in length 34 ft. in length 45 ft. in length 65 ft. in length
A passenger vessel in river service which operates in fresh water at least 6 out of every 12 months since the last dry dock examination must be dry-docked at intervals not to exceed __________. 12 months 24 months 48 months 60 months
If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________. posted adjacent to the Certificate of Inspection posted in the pilothouse posted in a passenger area filed in the ship's office
Which passenger vessel is required to permanently exhibit a fire control plan? any vessel over 500 Gross Tons a vessel 500 Gross Tons on an international voyage a vessel 500 Gross Tons on a domestic voyage None of the above
When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure? 4 8 12 24
Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 12 passengers 50 passengers 6 passengers 1 passenger
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that __________. have provisions only for deck passengers, vehicles, or both operate on a short run on a frequent schedule between two points over the most direct water route operate in other than ocean or coastwise service All of the above.
Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" applied to a vessel's equipment, means approved by the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) Congress of the United States American Bureau of Shipping Commandant of the Coast Guard Board of Fire Underwriters
In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an "open boat" is a vessel __________. on which gambling and consumption of alcoholic beverages is permitted that is not protected from entry of water by means of a complete weathertight deck that is docked and open for visitors that is used for charter fishing or tours and is open to the public
In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route is defined as one that is __________. on ocean waters more than 200 nautical miles from shore in the Gulf of Alaska not more than 50 statute miles from shore in the Gulf of Mexico not more than 20 statute miles from the nearest safe harbor in the Pacific Ocean not more than 20 nautical miles offshore in the ocean
The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include __________. sheltered waters presenting no special hazard waters within 20 nautical miles from the mouth of a harbor of safe refuge the Great Lakes during the summer season harbors, lakes and similar waters determined by the OCMI to be protected waters
What is the maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry? is the number authorized by your credential depends on the number of lifejackets you carry is stated on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection is the number authorized in the Navigation Rules
The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use Any or a combination of the above criteria "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger
No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard __________. until a permit is obtained from the Collector of Customs unless the operator has a Coast Guard Credential unless the vessel has a valid Permit to Proceed until the Boarding Officer has checked the papers
A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________. request an Expiration Certificate if the vessel displays a tendency to sink hire a tug and pilot instead get underway as soon as possible make the trip only after obtaining a "Permit to Proceed to Another Port for Repair", Form CG-948
On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification Expiration Date Stickers __________. must be readily visible to each passenger prior to boarding and to patrolling Coast Guard law enforcement personnel are issued along with a valid Certificate of Inspection (COI) to indicate the date the COI expires must be placed on glass or other smooth surfaces where they may be removed without damage to the vessel All of the above.
Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or alterations affecting its safety you must __________. schedule a full safety equipment inspection notify the cognizant OCMI provide a complete set of plans to the Commandant for review Both B and C
A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all __________. T-Boats that carry more than 12 passengers on an international voyage T-Boats carrying more than 49 passengers for hire T-Boats carrying more than 150 passengers for hire large excursion vessels on lakes, bays, sounds, and river routes
You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T" boat's Certificate of Inspection __________. on form CG-3752 every time your boat is hauled out at the shipyard where you are hauled out on form CG-835
When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations) Change of Employment Permit to Proceed Application for Inspection Temporary Certificate of Inspection
Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, the person in charge of the vessel, the owner or the agent should report this to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection American Boat and Yacht Council, Inc. National Cargo Bureau, Inc. All of the above.
Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) in any location desired as high as feasible in the pilot house in a conspicuous place where it will most likely be observed by the passengers near the area where passengers embark
The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) posted on the dock where passengers are embarked retained at the owner's principal place of business posted on board under glass, if practical kept on file by the Collector of Customs
A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) minimum fire fighting and lifesaving equipment route permitted crew requirements All of the above.
How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations) As many as possible Use your own judgment The amount on the Certificate of Inspection No more than 40 passengers
A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________. 6 months 12 months 36 months 60 months
A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at least once every __________. 2 years 3 years 4 years 5 years
Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3 months in any 12 month period since it was last hauled out 6 months in the 3 year period since it was last hauled out 12 months in the 5 year period since it was last hauled out whenever ownership or management changes
The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) once every 6 months once every year once every 2 years with a minimum of one reinspection during that period once every 3 years with a minimum of two reinspections during that period
A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) four years three years two years one year
The inspection of a 50 ft. vessel of 65 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard once in every __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) four years with a minimum of three reinspections during the four year period year two years three years with a minimum of two reinspections during the three year period
As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer? Subchapter B Subchapter D Subchapter F Subchapter T
Before issuing an initial Certificate of Inspection, the construction arrangement and equipment of a vessel must be acceptable to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) American Bureau of Shipping Surveyor U.S. Customs Collector Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection U.S. Salvage Marine Surveyor
Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations) The removal of a watertight bulkhead Renewal of a FCC Certificate for a radiotelephone A minor overhaul of the propulsion machinery All of the above.
Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations) Foam Dry chemical Carbon dioxide All of the above.
A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations) One percent Five percent Seven percent Ten percent
The premixed foam agent in fixed and semi portable fire extinguishing systems should be replaced __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) every 18 months every 12 months every 36 months only when used
The carbon dioxide cylinders of all fixed fire extinguishing systems shall be retested and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 5 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder 7 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder 10 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder 12 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) weighed discharged and recharged checked for pressure loss sent ashore to an approved service facility
Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels must be constructed of or lined with __________. steel or equivalent material fiberglass sheetrock, asbestos, or other material that retards the spread of fire marine plywood
On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight passenger accommodation spaces __________. must be immediately adjacent to an aisle leading to a means of escape must not be located more than 3 high, fitted with a suitable aid to access bunks more than 5' above deck with suitable aids to access bunks more than 5' above deck must be no less than 74" long and 24" wide with 24" of clear space above All of the above.
What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations) 18 inches (.5 m) high 24 inches (.6 m) high 39-1/2 inches (1 m) high 42 inches (1.1 m) high
How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations) Two Three Four Five
Fixed ballast, if used, may be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) discharged or moved at any time moved temporarily for examination or repair of the vessel, when done under the supervision of an inspector moved under the supervision of the owner, Master or shipyard moved under any condition except extreme emergency
A small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it __________. is more than 40 feet in length and operates on partially exposed waters operates on exposed waters carries more than 49 passengers All of the above.
A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partially protected waters may not have a port light below the weather deck unless __________. it is made of thick transparent plastic it opens and has a solid, inside, hinged cover it is sealed shut its sill is at least 30 inches above the deepest load waterline
On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less than six inches above the deepest load waterline __________. must be fitted with a gate valve except for engine exhausts must have a means to prevent water from entering the vessel if the pipe fails must have a check valve to prevent water from entering must be sealed
On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut off valve __________. may be operable from any accessible location above the bulkhead deck must be operable from the weather deck must be labeled at its operating point to show its identity and direction of closing All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration? Cast iron Cast bronze Stainless steel Plastic
All inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline shall have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) an efficient and accessible means of closing a wooden plug with a 36 inch lanyard a blank-off flange of similar material cast-iron shut-off valves
What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT? Sluice valves are not permitted. Each bulkhead must be stepped at its midpoint. Penetrations are prohibited. All of the above.
Hatches on small passenger vessels operating on exposed waters and exposed to the weather __________. need not be watertight must be watertight must be open at all times None of the above
Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations) In locked watertight and fireproof containers on or above the main deck In the wheelhouse Throughout the accommodation spaces In the forepeak
Electric generators can be protected against overload __________. with a governor on the engine with switches with fuses or circuit breakers by using heavy wire
Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must __________. be at least 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. be of manila rope or equivalent, not less than two inches in circumference and not less than four fathoms long be 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of at least 1500 lbs. be made of 90 feet of 3/8" nylon
You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________. inaccessible to passengers readily accessible for use on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times locked up
On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________. 20.0 meters (65.5 feet) in length 30.5 meters (100 feet) in length 10 fathoms (60 feet) in length 90 feet (27.5 meters) in length
Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with life floats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate __________. 25% of the crew and 50% of all passengers allowed to be carried not less than 50% of all passengers on board at the time at least 50% of all persons on board or meet certain construction standards All persons on board (100% of all passengers and crew)
With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________. on most "T-Boats" regardless of length only on "K-Boats" on most "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length None of the above
On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________. it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment regardless of its condition the equipment must be approved by the Commandant
Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that __________. is protected against all physical hazards is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate All of the above.
Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB? A coastwise vessel whose route does not take it more than three miles from shore A vessel operating within three miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes A vessel operating on lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers All of the above.
Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels __________. must be Coast Guard approved and stowed in a portable, watertight container are not required aboard vessels on runs of less than 30 minutes duration must be marked with an expiration date not more than 42 months from the date of manufacture All of the above.
Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color? Orange Any highly visible color easily seen from the air White White or international orange
Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry __________. a radar maintained in good operating condition a collision bulkhead at least one floating water light a white 20 point anchor light
What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations) They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water. They shall be of an approved type.
Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) may be substituted for 10% of the required life jackets shall be stowed separately from the required life jackets shall be stowed in a place inaccessible to passengers may not be carried on inspected vessels
Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger vessel? They need not be an approved type They may be worn during drills They must be stowed separately from approved life jackets They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required life jackets on board
When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 60 feet long 90 feet long 30 feet long 120 feet long
On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be __________. kept locked up at all times when underway inaccessible to passengers on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces
Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) Buoyant vest Life jacket Ring buoy Buoyant cushion
A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) for every passenger on board or buoyant cushion for every person on board plus 10% for children for every person on board, plus 10% additional on upper deck in box for every person on board, plus 10% childrens' life jackets
Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 10% of the passengers carried 20% of the total number of persons carried 10% of the total number of persons carried 20% of the passengers carried
If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) 10 adult and 5 child 10 adult and 1 child 10 adult 11 adult
Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 50 adult life jackets and 2 child life jackets 50 adult life jackets and 5 child life jackets 40 adult life jackets and 10 child life jackets 50 adult life jackets
Aboard small passenger vessels the number of children's' life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard? 4 (%) 7.5 (%) 10 (%) 15 (%)
The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 90% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection 120% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection 90% of the number of persons on board at the time the number of persons on board at the time
Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation) where land is always in sight water of less than 20 feet in depth about 30 minutes away from the dock no more than 5 miles
For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise, or Great Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry in a portable watertight container at or near the operating station __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) one 3-cell flashlight six orange hand smoke distress signals six red hand flare distress signals six red hand flare distress signals and six orange hand smoke distress signals
All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 8 red hand flare distress signals and 8 orange smoke hand distress signals 3 red hand flare distress signals and 3 orange smoke hand distress signals 6 red hand flare distress signals and 6 orange smoke hand distress signals None of the above
All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) with a water light to be attached during nighttime operation on the stern of the vessel with a twenty fathom line attached with no line attached
A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least __________. 1 ring life buoy with a water light 2 ring life buoys with a water light 2 ring life buoys with 2 water lights 3 ring life buoys with 2 water lights
Painters on life floats shall be not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 20 feet in length 30 feet in length 70 feet in length 100 feet in length
What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations) Water-light, painter, and signal mirror Water-light and painter only Two paddles, painter, and six red flares Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants
Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations) Paddles Painter Compass Light
Each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) two paddles, a light, a lifeline, a painter and pendants a lifeline, a painter, and a water light a lifeline, a painter, and one paddle two paddles, a light, and a lifeline
Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) paddles a sea anchor an EPIRB a signal mirror
Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) with the vessel's name with the vessel's name on all paddles the number of persons capacity the device is equipped for All of the above.
On a life float or buoyant apparatus, the life line is __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) woven into a net and secured in the center of the float secured around the sides and ends in bights of not longer than three feet the lanyard for securing provisions used for securing unconscious persons to the sides
Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of the following equipment EXCEPT __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) life lines water lights paddles painters
Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a height of not more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3 feet 4 feet 5 feet 6 feet
Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water must __________. have sufficient capacity for at least 50% of all persons on board for vessels in ocean service international orange in color only for vessels in lakes, bays and sounds service be only inflatable liferafts have sufficient capacity for all persons on board the vessel in ocean service.
A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats. (small passenger vessel regulations) all persons aboard 67% of the total number of persons permitted on board. 50% of all persons aboard 30% of all persons aboard
Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 25% of all persons on board 50% of all persons on board 75% of all persons on board 100% of all persons on board
Vessels in ocean service shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) life floats for 50% of all persons on board buoyant apparatus for all persons on board life jackets for 50% of all persons on board sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for all persons on board
Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 100% of all persons on board 25% of all persons on board 50% of all persons on board 75% of all persons on board
Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________. for not less than 100% of all persons permitted on board for not less than 67% of all persons permitted on board in place of ring life buoys for all persons on board
Small passenger vessels in cold water ocean routes, that do not meet the standards for collision bulkheads or subdivision in subchapter S, must carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) at least two EPIRBs at least one hand fire pump 100% inflatable buoyant apparatus All of the above.
Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved __________. inflatable buoyant apparatus life floats inflatable liferafts Any of the above.
What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel? Six feet Five feet Three feet Four feet
The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be __________. readily accessible stowed in locked compartments tested yearly inspected weekly
U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew __________. when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge in lieu of life preservers during an actual emergency in lieu of life preservers during fire drills in lieu of life preservers during boat drills
The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________. inspected weekly readily available worn at all times tested yearly
Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________. maintained in good and serviceable condition kept on board no more than 2 years destroyed if more than 5 years old inspected and serviced every 6 months
The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________. inspected weekly readily available worn at all times tested yearly
When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. 30 feet long 60 feet long 90 feet long 120 feet long
Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations) 4 lb. carbon dioxide 4 lb. dry chemical 15 lb. carbon dioxide 12 gallon foam
What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2.5 gallon foam 2 pound dry chemical 10 pound carbon dioxide 5 pound foam
On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump shall have a minimum pumping capacity of __________. 10 gallons per minute 100 gallons per minute 50 gallons per minute 100 gallons per minute
All vessels not required to have a power driven fire pump shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) an emergency hand fire and bilge pump at least three 2-1/2 gallon fire buckets a suitable, detachable pump usable for fire fighting purposes not less than three hand fire pumps
Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel? All fittings on hoses shall be of steel or other ferrous metal. A length of hose with nozzle attached shall be attached to each fire hydrant at all times. Fire hose shall be at least 3/4" outside diameter. One length of fire hose shall be provided for every two fire hydrants.
Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel? 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher 2-1/2 gallon foam extinguisher 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher None of the above
On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) at the carbon dioxide cylinders in a padlocked waterproof metal box inside the space protected outside the space protected
How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel? None are required One B-I, C-I One B-II, C-II One B-II
Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash point of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 0F or lower 75F or lower 90F or lower 110F or lower
If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located? (small passenger vessel regulations) In below-decks passenger accommodations In or adjacent to the primary operating station In the galley near the stove Just outside the engine room access
Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations) None are required. One B-II extinguisher is required. One B-I extinguisher is required. Two B-I extinguishers are required.
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping materials __________. are preferable to steel pipe may not be used on inspected vessels may only be used in non-vital systems may replace metal pipe or tubing in any installation
On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled gasoline or diesel engine must be water-jacketed and cooled? The exhaust manifold The engine's head The block All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines? Shut-off valves Drain valves Fuel gauges Clean out plates
Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels? Piping must be arranged so that water backflow cannot reach the engine exhaust ports Protection where people or equipment can contact the pipe. Dry exhaust pipe ending at the transom should be located as far outboard as possible All of the above.
Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate __________. in the fuel tank space in the engine compartment above or outside the hull at the most convenient location
Which statement is TRUE concerning a power driven fire pump on board a small passenger vessel? It shall be painted red. The hand fire pump shall be located adjacent to the main engine spaces. It may also serve as a bilge pump. It shall be of at least 2 gallons per minute capacity.
On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is __________. Large enough so it does not cause backpressure and fuel spillage Not specified by the Regulations 1 1/2 inches nominal pipe size 2 1/2 inches nominal pipe size
Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations) Mechanical supply and mechanical exhaust Natural supply and mechanical exhaust Natural supply and natural exhaust Mechanical supply and natural exhaust
On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent pipe must __________. terminate in a U-bend as high above the weather deck as practicable have a cross sectional area not less than that of 19 millimeters OD tubing. be connected to the tank at its highest point All of the above.
For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least __________. one fixed power pump and one portable hand pump one fixed hand pump and one portable hand pump two portable hand pumps either "A" or "B"
What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank? Steel or aluminum Sandwich style fiberglass with a natural rubber core Copper-nickel or copper silicon alloys Any or all of the above.
If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations) An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel A good air vent of sufficient diameter a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge A glass tube to visually observe the fuel
When a vessel is required to have a power-driven fire pump, the pump may also be used for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) the drinking water supply system engine cooling water the bilge pump None of the above
46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________. not be used in gasoline or diesel fuel systems have approved metallic fittings and cutoff valves where it penetrates a watertight deck or bulkhead only be used in non-vital systems All of the above.
When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system __________. may use a closed fresh water system must have a suitable hull strainer in the raw water intake pump must operate whenever the engine is operating All of the above.
A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate __________. Midway between the fuel tank and the engine Below the waterline to eliminate the accumulation of explosive vapors As close to the deck plates as possible On the hull exterior as high above the waterline as practicable and remote from any hull opening
On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be fitted to a fuel line's tank connection? A fuel strainer A tubular glass gauge to indicate the fuel level A shut-off valve All of the above.
Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, the minimum capacity required per bilge pump is __________. 10 gallons per minute 19 gallons per minute 38 gallons per minute 50 gallons per minute
Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges? To remove fuel vapors which are heavier than air To cool the machinery areas To provide adequate air to the engines To keep them dry, and thus easier to clean
On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding pipes of gasoline tanks must extend directly __________. to within one-half of their diameter from the bottom of the tank Midway between the top and bottom of the tank To within one-half foot from the bottom of the tank To the tank top
In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55 foot long ferry must have a fixed power operated bilge pump capable of pumping at least __________. 5 GPM 10 GPM 25 GPM 50 GPM
On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines __________. at the tank and the engine end of the fuel line only at the engine end of the fuel line outside the engine room on the fill and vent lines only at the tank end of the fuel line
Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________. warm up the exhaust blower motor insure at least one complete change of air in the compartments concerned see the system is in good operating condition provide a proper supply of fresh air for the engine(s)
A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be __________. terminated on the weather deck and extend to within one-half of its diameter from the bottom of the tank arranged so neither liquid gasoline nor its vapors can overflow or escape inside the vessel fitted with a suitably marked watertight deck plate or screw cap All of the above.
On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________. terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion resistant wire screen of at least 30x30 mesh be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from being trapped in the line be connected at the highest point in the tank All of the above.
A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________. pressure release automatic shut off flow valve backfire flame arrestor
Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? Filter Shut-off valve Flow meter Pressure gauge
The shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank space __________. shuts off the gasoline supply at the tank controls the amount of gasoline to the engine is used if the gasoline tank leaks All of the above.
Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are __________. those with large engines only all those with gasoline engines those with diesel engines None of the above
Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine? Vent Flame arrestor ONLY Drip collector Box of sawdust
Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________. distributors spark plugs fuel tanks carburetors
Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed __________. in a cool and insulated place independent of the hull so the fuel line to the engine leads from a shut-off valve at the bottom of the tank on a level higher than the engine
On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be __________. electrically bonded to a common ground fitted with vertical baffle plates if the tank is longer than 30 inches in any horizontal dimension built without flanged-up top edges All of the above.
On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with __________. A means of backfire flame control Jacket water discharge temperature gauges A lubricating oil pressure gauge and a tachometer All of the above.
On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage? A drip collector A sponge Suitable absorbent material A funnel and a tin can
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________. a separate pipe leading to the bilges a suitable absorbent material the engine air intakes the fuel tanks
On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector? Updraft Four barrel Two barrel Downdraft
ABYC equipment standards are published by the __________. Association of Boat and Yacht Classifiers American Boat and Yacht Council American Boat and Yacht Convention 1991 American Boat and Yacht Club
On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery must be __________. intrinsically safe ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere explosion-proof All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be __________. flushed and changed periodically obtained from the engine's cooling water system or from a separate engine-driven pump obtained from a fresh water storage tank or an expansion tank chemically treated to prevent corrosion
Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens __________. consisting of a single screen of at least 30 X 30 mesh, corrosion resistant wire three inches in circumference inside the fill pipe three inches in diameter with a check valve to prevent water from entering in heavy weather and 30 square inches of louvers
On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of __________. plastic, rubber, or seamless steel tubing annealed tubing of copper, nickel-copper, or copper nickel stainless steel, iron, or brass copper, plastic, stainless steel, or galvanized iron
Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines? Copper-nickel tubing Seamless steel pipe or tubing Annealed copper tubing Nickel-copper tubing
On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be __________. an interlocking type an asbestos covered type made of non-ferrous metal, and be a flare or non-bite flareless type a silver-soldered type
On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines? In diesel installations only In gasoline installations only In both diesel and gasoline installations In neither diesel nor gasoline installations
On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________. must be extended to an external area of the hull must be located at the lowest portion of the tank must have only a gravity-forced flow are permitted
On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________. for inspection purposes only to bleed fuel lines to tap fuel for cleaning parts and engine wash down under no circumstances in gasoline installations
On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks? 4 of each 3 of each 2 of each 1 of each
Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________. Gasoline vapors are heavier than air, tend to settle in the bilges, and create an explosion hazard oil and water mix there air is heavier than gas fumes it prevents air from entering or leaving the space
Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks? Mechanical supply and natural exhaust At least one opening to the exterior of the hull Natural supply and mechanical exhaust All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks? 1 of each 2 of each 3 of each 4 of each
On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with __________. mechanical air supply fans and natural exhaust natural air supply and mechanical exhaust fans cowls and scoops which can be closed during foul weather air conditioning to control moisture
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine? Long enough to achieve a minimum of two complete air changes For at least four to five minutes Long enough to achieve at least one complete change of air No fixed amount, but the blower should run until you don't smell any gas
On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks __________. must not allow any appreciable vapor flow except through their normal openings must lead as directly as possible and be properly fastened and supported must be of rigid, permanent construction All of the above.
What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length? 1" 1-1/2" 2" 2-1/2"
Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if __________. they are found satisfactory by the cognizant OCMI they are not operated through a reduction gear they are at least 6 feet long Both A and C above
Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system? A suitable hand tiller, approved by the OCMI A spare rudder, stowed so it can be readily mounted A threefold purchase, rove to advantage All of the above.
On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________. oil fired turbine or reciprocating steam engine natural gas (propane) engine gasoline powered engine turbocharged diesel engine
On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________. turbocharged diesel engines gasoline engines all electric motors both A and C
The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________. prevent overloading the circuits reduce voltage to the branch circuits permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits allow for cutting out branch circuits
If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment operated only in daylight hours provided with gasoline or kerosene lights equipped with individual battery-powered lights
On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be __________. installed only by a licensed marine electrician served and parceled with the lay, turned and wormed the other way made within enclosures inspected annually by the Coast Guard
In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels should be __________. as high above the bilge as practicable accessible for maintenance and removal stowed in well-ventilated spaces to allow dissipation of any gases generated All of the above.
Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________. less water would be used ventilation supplies extra oxygen for the battery ventilation avoids CO2 buildup ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
Storage batteries on "T-Boats" must be located __________. in sight of the main engine(s)