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Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________. reduce reserve buoyancy increase GM increase righting moments All of the above.
Reserve buoyancy is the __________. volume of intact space above the waterline unoccupied space below the waterline difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force
Reserve buoyancy is the __________. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight also called GM the watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline affected by the number of transverse watertight bulkheads
Reserve buoyancy is the __________. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight a measure of metacentric height transverse watertight bulkheads the watertight part of a vessel above the waterline
Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________. bilge pumping capacity reserve buoyancy instability level attitude
Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________. take a course which most eases the vessel reduce speed pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel All of the above.
You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel? Removing burned debris from the cargo hold Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard Shutting off electricity to damaged cables Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________. completely flooded on the centerline off-center open to the sea above and below the waterline
Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________. length of space only length and width of space width of space only neither length nor width
The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________. in and out of a vessel that is holed in a peak tank in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank from fore to aft in the tanks of a vessel from side to side in the tanks of the vessel
The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________. flowing in and out of a holed wing tank pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels flowing from side to side within the vessel flowing from fore to aft within a vessel
Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________. reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG
The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as __________. permeability form gain one compartment standard center of flotation
A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid? 518.4 short tons 11.3 short tons 135.0 short tons 259.2 short tons
Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what? Remain stationary Rise Shift to the high side Fall
How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground? This requires extensive calculation and is usually performed only by a naval architect not by a ship's officer. Determine the point where aground and the draft at that point, then calculate it using the grounding formula. Use the inclining experiment formula and substitute the change of trim for the angle of list. Use the hydrostatic tables and enter with the mean draft before grounding and the mean draft after grounding.
If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the __________. bow stern mid-section All of the above.
Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________. press up a slack double bottom tank on the port side fill an empty centerline double bottom tank jettison the anchors and anchor cables pump out a slack marine portable tank located on the portside amidships
A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________. decrease in KM is equal to the loss of draft virtual rise of G is directly proportional to the remaining draft displacement lost acts at the point where the ship is aground lost buoyancy method is used to calculate KM, and KB is reduced
With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the preservation of __________. instability bilge pumping capacity reserve buoyancy level attitude
Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe __________. the space at which all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are considered to be concentrated the volume of all intact spaces above the waterline an intact space which can be flooded without causing a ship to sink an intact space below the surface of a flooded area
To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could __________. lower the center of gravity increase reserve buoyancy raise the center of gravity ballast the vessel
Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use which method? Compartment standard method Factor of subdivision method Added weight method Lost buoyancy method
A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________. has two compartments in addition to the engine room will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded has no more than two compartments will sink if any two compartments are flooded
If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________. cause an increase in the righting arm increase the righting moment cause the vessel to flop to a greater angle bring the vessel to an upright equilibrium position
Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged? KB increases, increasing BM and therefore GM KG increases due to the weight of the added water on deck There is no effect on transverse stability. BM decreases from loss of water plane and greater volume.
A continual worsening of the list or trim indicates __________. structural failure an immediate need to ballast negative GM progressive flooding
Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation? Pump out the after peak and fill the forepeak to change the trim. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty. Jettison any off-center topside weights to lower GM and correct the list. Pump out any slack after double-bottom tanks to reduce free surface and increase freeboard aft.
During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. You should __________. continue counterflooding in the same direction continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction immediately stop counterflooding deballast from the low side
Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability? Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard Press up any slack double-bottom tanks to eliminate free surface Jettison topside weights to reduce KG and KB Flood any empty double-bottom tanks to add weight low and down
You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation? Pump out flooding water in the cargo holds to reduce free surface. Pump out a slack double bottom tank to reduce free surface. Flood any empty double bottom tanks to decrease KG. Jettison topside weights to increase freeboard.
Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST? Jettison stores out of the paint locker in the fo'c'sle. Eliminate the water in the 'tween decks aft. Press up the slack NO.1 starboard double bottom tank. Pump out the forepeak tank.
Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST? Pump out the forepeak tank Press up an after, slack, centerline double bottom tank Jettison the anchors and anchor cables Jettison deck cargo from the port side
Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00"(1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST? Pump out the marine potable tank located on the starboard side amidships Transfer ballast from the peak tanks to an amidships centerline tank Press up a slack centerline double bottom tank Pump out an amidships centerline ballast tank
Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST? Transfer all possible movable weights from port to starboard Press up a slack centerline double bottom tank Fill an empty double bottom tank on the starboard side Pump out ballast from the port and starboard double bottom tanks
Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability? Pump out the peak tanks simultaneously. Press up a centerline double bottom that is now filled to 15% capacity. Rig the jumbo boom and use it to jettison heavy deck cargo. In calm seas lower the lifeboats to the water and keep them alongside.
Damage stability is the stability __________. after flooding which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots at the maximum load before collision
The stability which remains after a compartment is flooded is called __________. damage stability initial stability intact stability immersion stability
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________. shifts to the low side remains the same increases decreases
You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Stability may be reduced because of __________. increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height reduction of KG to the minimum allowable reduction of water in the storage tanks progressive downflooding
Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect? The vessel will suddenly flop to the same or greater angle of list on the other side and may capsize. The vessel can probably be saved if further flooding can be stopped. The slowing is only temporary and the vessel will probably suddenly capsize or plunge from loss of stability due to change in the waterplane area. The vessel will continue to slowly list and/or trim due to the free surface effect and free communication effect.
To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should __________. completely flood high center tanks ballast double bottom wing tanks close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank close the cross-connection valve between the off-center tanks
Jettisoning weight from topside __________. lowers the center of gravity raises the center of buoyancy reduces free surface effect returns the vessel to an even keel
The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its __________. free surface marginal stability reserve buoyancy freeboard
Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? Rolling period Metacentric height Righting moment Freeboard
Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure? Discharge forward deck cargo. Flood an after double-bottom tank. Pump out the forepeak tank. Shift deck cargo aft.
Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next? Wait for high tide and then try backing. Shift weight aft to reduce the forward draft. Flood empty tanks to increase bottom pressure and prevent inshore creep. Continue backing to scour out the bottom.
Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. The virtual rise in the center of gravity is __________. 1.26 feet 3.80 feet 4.80 feet 5.66 feet
What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength? Damage to the side shell, midway between the bilge and the stringer plate Extensive corrosion to the centerline deck plating Grounding damage to the bilge strake, just aft of midships Collision damage to the bow, forward of the collision bulkhead
Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________. parceling parbuckling seizing caulking
Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________. use jacks or chain falls to remove the set before installing shores install shoring so that it pushes on the damaged bulkhead while supporting it place sandbags by the bulkhead without installing shores install shoring so the shoring supports the damaged bulkheads without pushing on them
You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. The center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead should be located __________. approximately halfway up the bulkhead evenly over the surface of the bulkhead approximately one-third of the way up the bulkhead at the bottom of the bulkhead
You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. The center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead should be located __________. evenly over the surface of the bulkhead approximately halfway up the bulkhead approximately two-thirds of the way up the bulkhead at the bottom of the bulkhead
The objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead is to __________. make a watertight seal at the damaged area withstand subsequent additional damage force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place support and hold the area in the damaged position
When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________. nearest longitudinal girder nearest watertight door minimum possible area maximum possible area
Strengthening damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel is called __________. battening shoring bracing blocking
Your vessel has been damaged and you must shore a bulkhead. You should cut the shore __________. approximately 1/2 inch longer than the measured length to allow for trimming to the same length as the measured length approximately 1/2 inch shorter than the measured length to allow for wedges approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow for wet expansion
A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________. welding a doubler over the crack slot-welding the crack cutting a square notch at each end of the crack drilling a hole at each end of the crack
Progressive flooding is controlled by securing watertight boundaries and __________. abandoning ship jettisoning cargo pumping out flooded compartments transferring water ballast
What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged? The integrity of the water tight boundaries The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms The capacity of the water sprinkler systems All of the above.
Which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST? Damage to interior watertight boundaries Damage below the waterline Damage at or just above the waterline Damage in way of machinery rooms
Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________. continued progressive flooding wind heel capsizing free surface effects
Control of flooding should be addressed __________. first following control of fire following restoration of vital services only if a threat exists
Progressive flooding may be indicated by __________. a continual worsening of list or trim ballast control alarms excessive draft excessive list or trim
The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage control fire, restore vital services, control flooding restore vital services, control fire, control flooding
After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________. after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs immediately, before the emergency is under control after control of fire, but before control of flooding after stability is restored
The BEST information on the nature and extent of damage to the vessel is obtained from __________. the bridge watch the engine room watch alarms and monitoring devices personnel at the scene of the damage
A wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________. collapsing developing free surface developing free surface moment filling completely
The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________. pump from the damaged tank fight a fire use the crossover system abandon ship
The two factors which make underwater hull repair difficult are accessibility and the __________. threat of progressive flooding availability of tools shape of the hull pressure exerted by the water
When patching holes in the hull, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as __________. strongbacks gaskets wedges shores
When plugging holes below the waterline you should __________. eliminate all water entering the hole only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces plug the largest holes first reduce the entry of water as much as possible
In plugging submerged holes; rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to __________. reduce the water pressure on the hull reduce the possibility of stress fractures prevent progressive flooding reduce the water leaking around the plugs
The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to __________. secure power to the compartment establish and maintain flooding boundaries dewater the compartment ballast to maintain even keel
Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do? Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerged. If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all ballast overboard. Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar. All of the above.
Which statement about damage control is TRUE? Water flowing over the fo'c'sle bulwark is more dangerous than a hole in the hull at the waterline. Water flowing into a lower compartment on a ship is more dangerous than water on deck or flowing into an upper compartment. The amount of water entering a ship through a hole varies inversely to the area of the hole. A hole in the hull at the waterline is more dangerous than a hole below the inner bottom.
Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________. pump out the water inside the vessel establish flooding boundaries and prevent further spread of flood water plug the hole(s) in the outer shell calculate the free surface effect and lost buoyancy to determine the vessel's stability
The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________. filling completely developing free surfaces developing free surface moments collapsing
If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________. determine the cause before taking countermeasures assume the cause is environmental forces assume the shift is due to off-center loading counterflood
Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because __________. the fuel used is less volatile they operate at a lower speed they can be easily reversed they are more heavily built
The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open is to __________. drain the fuel tank apply the shaft brake turn off the ignition switch close the fuel supply valve
What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine? Exhaust pyrometer Tachometer Jacket water temperature gauge Lube oil pressure gauge
A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________. worn stern bearing or misalignment a tight tail shaft gland an engine that is misfiring shallow water
During fueling, all doors, hatches, and ports __________. should be closed to leeward should be opened and the ones to windward should be closed should be opened to windward should be opened and the ones to leeward should be closed
After an engine is started you should __________. check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all parts of the engine pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the engine
Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when __________. it gets dark in color a sample rubbed between fingers feels thin it has been in use for a specified interval it no longer supports combustion
Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber is ignited by __________. heat of compression a magneto glow plugs spark plugs
How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time? Inject ether into the air intake to shorten warm up time. Bring it up to top speed immediately and run until warmed up. Idle for a brief period of time and then warm up at half speed. Run it at minimum speed until warmed to operating temperature.
How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear? Light blue haze Perfectly clear Light brown haze Light gray haze
Each cylinder in a two cycle engine experiences combustion __________. every fourth stroke once each crankshaft revolution every other crankshaft revolution twice each crankshaft revolution
What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean? Excessive lube oil consumption Late fuel injection Excess combustion air High compression temperature
How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine? Turbo chargers Cylinder head valves Ports Bleeder valves
What are the three basic types of engine starters? Air, hydraulic, electric Air, emergency, hydraulic Metered, hydraulic, automatic Air, water, electric
Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium? Electric starting motors Compressed air Hydraulics Ether
What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine? Excessive turbo charger speed High lube oil pressure High jacket water pressure Low lube oil pressure
The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and __________. high jacket water pressure high lube oil pressure high jacket water temperature low jacket water pressure
If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken? Slowly add cool water to the expansion tank Back flush the cooling water system Allow engine to cool gradually Open crankcase explosion covers
Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or __________. natural aspiration air starters air receivers carburetors
What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine? They supply cooling water. They regulate the combustion cycle. They supply and regulate the lubricant flow. They synchronize the ignition spark.
What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine? Oil temperature Fuel consumption Manifold pressure Exhaust gas temperature
All marine low-speed diesels are of what design? Forced exhaust Four-stroke Electronic ignition Two-stroke
All diesel engines are classified as __________. external combustion four cycle compression ignition vacuum ignition
Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________. low voltage trip excessive exhaust temperatures damage to windings reverse power trip
Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause __________. increased exhaust temperature black smoke decreased fuel efficiency overspeed trip
What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature? Foaming of the lubricating oil Buildup of sludge in the lubricating system Excessive fuel consumption Severe heat stresses on mechanical parts
If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should __________. secure the starting air supply valve pull off the distributor cap secure the jacket water discharge a CO2 extinguisher in the air inlet
The most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________. causes corrosion can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system reduces the ability of the system to cool the engine accelerates formation of metal plating
The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________. accelerates erosion reduces the effectiveness of chromate additives can form pockets of high chemical concentrates accelerates formation of sludge deposits
The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________. can form air pockets which exclude coolant contact with hot surfaces reduces the effectiveness of the coolant accelerates formation of hydrogen peroxide deposits causes corrosion
What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine? Jacket water treatment Low heat of combustion Cooling water pressure Air flow through the radiator
What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion? Diesel fuel costs less than bunker C or its equivalent Less fuel consumption per SHP Less weight per SHP Less routine maintenance required
What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine? Increases engine horsepower Reduces engine horsepower Increases efficiency Increases engine life
What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine? Air box pressure Water temperature Water pressure Exhaust temperature
A hydraulic accumulator is designed to __________. store fluid under pressure replenish fluid to a system act as a fluid reservoir provide overpressure relief
What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system? Provides overpressure protection Condenses moisture Purifies the air Acts as an accumulator
The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained returns the rudder to mid-position when the wheel is released synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position relieves excessive fluid pressure
In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________. Rapson slide trick wheel six-way valve follow-up control
All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________. increase their operating efficiency protect personnel from electrical shock prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them prevent them from falling when the vessel rolls
If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units? telemotor accumulator standby pump trick wheel
What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position? Direction is unimportant From below the seat Depends on seat configuration From above the seat
On what type of pump would you find an impeller? Piston Centrifugal Vane Gear
What is the purpose of a check valve? Permits flow in one direction only Passes liquid but not air Regulates liquid flow Passes air but not liquid
What is the purpose of a vent header? Prevents entry of water into vent systems Combines individual vent lines into a main Prevents passage of flame into fuel tanks Catches overflow
Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________. damage to windings low voltage trip excessive exhaust temperatures reverse power trip
What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump? Heavy fluid in the flow stream Rough impeller surfaces Worn wearing rings Vapor pockets in the flow stream
What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator? Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. Sea water is heated to boiling temperature under a vacuum.
What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing? Shaft seal Drain hole Water flinger Lantern ring
Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming? To overcome resistance of water in the discharge line To lubricate shaft seals Head pressure must equal discharge pressure Lack of ability to lift water level to impellers
In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly controlled by the __________. rapson slide follow-up gear trick wheel receiver unit
According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995? On hydraulic type steering gears, a suitable arrangement of check valves in the main piping system may be considered as a means of steadying the rudder. A separate auxiliary means of steering is not required where the main gear is of the dual power hydraulic type, having two independent pumps and connections. Hydraulic structural rudder stops are mandatory. All of the above.
Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________. have a guard over the gearing be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery
Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists should __________. have a guard over the gearing be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery
Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________. regulating the oil flow with the six-way valve moving the automatic differential valve varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a floating ring moving the follow up indicator which regulates the six-way valve
Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________. with the follow-up gear disconnected with both pumps on line at the same time with one pump on standby only when the rudder is moved amidships
When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear? The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion. The pumps go to full stroke. Both port and starboard cables are energized.
Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless __________. a rudder order is given by the control system the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear the variable stroke pump is off stroke
What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel? Hard rubber Bronze bushings Wooden (lignum vitae) strips Resin bonded composition
What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction? Hard rubber Lignum vitae Oil-lubricated bearings Bronze bushings
What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass? Electrical loading Compressibility of air Mechanical distribution Mechanical friction
What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor? Plugged air cooler Faulty unloader Leaking air valves Carbon on cylinder heads
When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down? The running generator's circuit breaker will immediately trip on overload. Both generators will immediately shut down. The stalled generator's circuit breaker will trip on reverse power. The generator that's still running will motorize.
Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a __________. stop-water propeller boss seacock stuffing box
What power source actuates a solenoid valve? Hydraulic pressure Air pressure Electric current Mechanical force
What is the purpose of a striker plate? Provides landing surface for the sounding bob Prevents valve stem over-travel Provides surface for applying force on machinery Absorbs machinery vibration
What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps? Seal pump shaft against entry of air Dampen the turbulent discharge flow Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream Isolate the outlet side from the inlet side
A thrust block is designed to __________. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel
What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion? Viscosity Specific heat Flash point Volatility
The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as __________. the screen wall refractory fire plate the water wall
What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler? Receives saturated steam from the generating tubes Serves as a reservoir of boiler feed water Holds internal fittings for separation of moisture from steam Collects steam exhausted from the turbines
A spark arrestor __________. grounds static electricity secures covers on ullage openings keeps sparks from falling into an open tank prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system
One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________. a minimum speed for the engines that limits the minimum speed of the vessel the low efficiency of the system when a controllable pitch propeller is used the extra weight required for the diesel reduction gearing the higher fuel consumption per SHP
In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion? Screen tubes Water-wall tubes Water drums Downcomers
In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased? Firebox Mud drum Superheater Economizer
What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler? Collects steam exhausted from the turbines Receives saturated steam from the generating tubes Serves as a reservoir of boiler feed water Holds internal fittings for separation of moisture from steam
What does blowing tubes accomplish? Flushes away mineral deposits inside the water tubes Eliminates unburned fuel oil residues from the firebox Increases boiler efficiency Cleans soot deposits from the inside of the stack
What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion? Cheaper initial installation cost Faster response from ahead to astern Less fuel consumption Less weight per unit of horsepower
Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked? Exhaust discharge Oil level Flow of cooling water All of the above.
You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. You should FIRST __________. make a temporary repair with canvas or tape activate the CO2 system start the bilge pump close the fuel valve at the tank
Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________. fuel filters day tanks an injector test stand fuel/water separators
Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________. prohibited permitted for drawing fuel samples permitted for draining fuel from lines permitted for bleeding air from lines
The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________. carbon monoxide may enter the interior of the vessel entry of air may cause vapor lock the joint gaskets may be blown bilge water may enter the exhaust pipe
If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________. too heavy a load a defective ignition system weak valve springs low lube oil level
To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should __________. disconnect the wires at the spark plugs and make the spark jump the gap break the joint in the fuel line at the engine and let the gas run in the bilges ventilate the space, then check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor, and fuel line prime the engine with ether through spark plug openings
A safe fuel system must __________. supply sufficient air to the intake manifold have proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio prevent engine overheating be liquid- and vapor-tight
Before any machinery is put in operation, you should __________. assume there are no volatile fumes in the engine space take for granted that there are no fuel leaks just turn the key and start up ventilate all compartments, see that the machinery is clean and there are no obstructions
Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel? Fuel vapors can only be ignited by an open flame. Fuel vapors gather in the lowest portions of the vessel. Vent outlets should be located above the level of the carburetor air intake. None of the above
Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel? They should be vented into the wheelhouse. They should be vented into the engine to improve combustion. They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel. They are heavier than air and will settle in the lowest part of the vessel.
The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________. in contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark in contact with the fill opening to allow proper venting None of the above
Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________. check the fuel tank check the flame arrester check the battery ventilate the bilges
Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations? All engines, motors, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling. Fuel tanks should be topped off with no room for expansion. A fire extinguisher should be kept nearby. All windows, doors, hatches, etc. should be closed.
The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________. assist in priming the cylinders mix the fuel and air properly lubricate the engine distribute the gasoline
When fueling has been completed __________. the engine should be started immediately to prevent vapor lock in the fuel line all hatches should be opened and all compartments should be ventilated the fuel tank fill pipe should be left open to allow vapors to vent from the tank open the fuel line and drain a small amount of gasoline into the bilge to clear the line of sediment
Gasoline tanks should be filled __________. to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks with only sufficient fuel for the planned trip so excess gasoline is not carried to near the top with some space allowed for gasoline expansion to the top so the operator is certain how much fuel he has aboard
Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to __________. ventilate before starting engine start engines immediately keep ports, doors, windows, and hatches closed None of the above
What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine? Low heat of combustion Cooling water pressure Air flow through the radiator Jacket water treatment
Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat? the bilges, cabins, etc. are thoroughly ventilated the gasoline tank is full you have fresh water on board each of the above is followed
A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following? call for help and keep the individual in sight go to the control room for the distress flares run to the radio room to send an emergency message immediately jump into the water to assist the individual
One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY __________. apply left rudder position your vessel to windward and begin recovery throw the crew member a life preserver begin backing your engines
On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation? good communication switching to hydraulic steering a dedicated crew good equipment
A person who sees someone fall overboard should __________. call for help and keep the individual in sight go to the bridge for the distress flares immediately jump in the water to assist the individual run to the radio room to send an emergency message
If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________. throw him/her a life buoy pass the word to the bridge hail "man overboard" All of the above.
A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take? Immediately put the rudder over hard right. Immediately put the engines astern. Wait until the stern is well clear of the man and then put the rudder over hard right. Immediately put the rudder over hard left.
You are on watch and receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. What should your first action be? put the engines full astern notify the Master put the wheel hard right sound the man overboard alarm
The key to rescuing a man overboard is __________. good equipment well-conducted drills good communication a dedicated crew
One major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard situation is that it __________. is easy for a single-screw vessel to perform can be used in reduced visibility requires the least shiphandling skills to perform is the fastest method
The maneuver which will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time is __________. a single turn with hard rudder two 180° turns a Williamson Turn engine(s) crash astern, no turn
The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if __________. the man is reported missing rather than immediately seen as he falls overboard the conning officer is inexperienced a boat will be used to recover the man the vessel is very maneuverable
On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, you should __________. increase speed to full to get the vessel away from the person immediately reverse the engines stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side first put the rudder hard over in either direction
In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original heading? 60° 135° 180° 360°
You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading? 60° to 70° 90° 135° 180°
A racetrack turn would be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard if __________. the man has been missing for a period of time the sea water is very cold and the man is visible there is thick fog the wind was from astern on the original course
You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation? Racetrack Scharnow Single turn Williamson
The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________. there has been sufficient time elapsed since the man went over to complete the maneuver the turn is started immediately when the man goes over the vessel has twin screws to assist in making the turn the man can be kept in sight from the bridge while maneuvering
While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this man-overboard situation? Scharnow Racetrack Single turn of 180° Round
When making a Scharnow turn, the __________. man overboard must be not more than 300 feet astern when starting the turn rudder must be put over towards the side the man went over rudder is put hard over and the initial turn is maintained until about 240° from the original course initial turn direction is away from the side the man went over
Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________. it is faster it returns the vessel to the original track line on a reciprocal course in fog, if the turn is started as soon as the man goes over, the vessel will be at the point where he went over when the turn is completed it can be used in both the immediate action and the delayed action situations
In a Williamson turn, the rudder is put over full until the __________. emergency turn signal sounds vessel has turned 60°From her original course vessel has turned 90°From her original course vessel is on a reciprocal course
You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. You should __________. put the rudder amidships and check the swing increase to maximum speed shift your rudder stop the engines and prepare to maneuver to pick up the man in the water
Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE? It requires the highest degree of shiphandling skills to accomplish. It is the slowest of the methods used in turning the vessel. It is the best turn to use when the victim is not in sight due to reduced visibility. It returns the vessel to the original track-line on a reciprocal course.
You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances? The turn enables you to reverse course in the shortest possible time. The turn provides the maximum coverage of the area to be searched. You will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the track-line run during the night. You have extra time to maneuver in attempting to close in on the man for rescue.
Which statement is FALSE, concerning the Williamson turn? The initial actions are taken at well defined points and reduce the need for individual judgment. When the turn is completed, the vessel will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the original track line. In a large vessel (VLCC) much of the headway will be lost thereby requiring little astern maneuvering. The turn will return the vessel to the man's location in the shortest possible time.
You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn? Shift the helm to left full rudder. Stop the engines until clear of the man. Come right full rudder until the vessel heads 150°T. Continue with left rudder until on course 270°T.
While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make? figure eight turn Racetrack turn Williamson turn Round turn
A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to the track-line steamed during the night? Williamson Racetrack 180° turn Anderson
You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is TRUE? If on a coastwise voyage along the east coast of the U.S., you should put into the nearest port. You should only enter a port in the danger zone during hours of darkness. You should attempt to submit an AMVER report to NSA. When over 200 hundred miles from a port in the danger zone, you should not darken ship.
You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach? To windward of the disabled vessel To leeward of the disabled vessel At three times the drifting speed of the disabled vessel Directly astern of the disabled vessel
Your vessel has gone aground in waters where the tide is falling. The BEST action you can take is to __________. shift the vessel's load forward and wait until the next high tide shift the vessel's load aft and repeatedly surge the engine(s) astern set out a kedge anchor slowly bring the engine(s) to full speed astern
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE? Evacuation should be from an area forward of the bridge. The vessel should be slowed to bare steerageway. The litter should not be touched until it has been grounded. If the hoist is at the stern, booms extending aft at the stern should be cradled with the topping lifts hove taut.
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be __________. underway with the wind 30° on the bow stopped with the wind on the beam underway on a course to provide no apparent wind stopped with the wind dead ahead
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take? A course that will have the hoist area in the lee of the superstructure. A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area. Downwind so that the apparent wind is close to nil. With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable when going into the wind.
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE? The vessel should be stopped with the wind dead ahead during the hoisting operation. Flags should be flown to provide a visual reference as to the direction of the apparent wind. The drop line should be grounded first then secured as close to the hoist point as possible. The hoist area should be located as far aft as possible so the pilot will have a visual reference while approaching.
You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE? The tending line of the litter basket should be secured to the ship beyond the radius of the helicopter blades. The basket or stretcher must not be allowed to touch the deck. The ship should be stopped with the wind off the beam while the helicopter is hovering overhead. The hoist line should be slack before the basket or stretcher is hooked on.
You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE? The helicopter's drop line should be secured to the ship not more than 15 feet from the hoist position. When using a "horse collar", the bight of the loop should be around the chest of the injured seaman. The deck crew at the hoist point should not wear baseball hats. The ship's relative wind should be from dead ahead at 10 to 30 knots.
A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least __________. 50 feet of clear deck 6 feet of clear deck 10 feet of clear deck 25 feet of clear deck
You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with ship pickup is TRUE? A pickup off the weather bow gives maximum maneuverability with the least possibility of injury to the man. Ship pick up should never be used with a shallow draft vessel. You should stop with the man on your weather beam and twist the ship up to him. You should stop to windward of the man and drift down on him.
You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. You should approach __________. at a speed of at most one-half that of the wrecked vessel at a speed of at least that of the wrecked vessel to windward of the wrecked vessel to leeward of the wrecked vessel
You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons a small craft should approach with the __________. victim to leeward victim to windward wind on your starboard side wind on your port side
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling
A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a lifeboat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the lifeboat should make __________. an approach from leeward an approach from windward the most direct approach an approach across the wind
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a rescue boat, the other individuals in the boat should __________. remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of the raft overturning take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling remove their life preservers to prepare for the transfer
When a man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat, the boat should approach with the wind __________. astern and the victim just off the bow just off the bow and the victim to windward ahead and the victim just off the bow just off the bow and the victim to leeward
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should __________. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling remove their life preservers to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should __________. climb on top of the boat while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel remain seated inside and make the transfer one person at a time enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel
When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should __________. remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person at a time remove their lifejackets to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel climb on top of the survival craft while waiting their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel
When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach with the wind __________. astern and the victim just off the bow ahead and the victim just off the bow just off the bow and the victim to windward just off the bow and the victim to leeward
You are picking up a conscious person that has fallen overboard. Recovery is easier if you approach with the __________. wind on your starboard side victim to leeward wind on your port side victim to windward
A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make_______. the most direct approach an approach from windward an approach across the wind an approach from leeward
When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should __________. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person at a time
You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________. upon entering the helicopter after exiting clear of the helicopter prior to reaching the water after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter
You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE? You should stop to windward of the survivors in the water and only use the ship's boats to recover the survivors. If the survivors are in inflatable rafts you should approach from windward to create a lee for the survivors. An inflatable liferaft secured alongside can be an effective boarding station for transfer of survivors from the boats. Survivors in the water should never be permitted alongside due to the possibility of injury from the vessel.
The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to __________. smother fire with foam cool fuel below ignition temperature remove oxygen from the area smother with CO2
The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire is that it __________. washes the fire away breaks up and cools the fire protects the firefighting crew removes the oxygen
A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class __________. A B C D
A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class __________. A B C D
A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class __________. A B C D
Burning wood is which class of fire? A B C D
A fire in a pile of linen is a class __________. A B C D
What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel? Steam Water fog Foam Carbon dioxide
Which extinguishing agent is suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment? Dry chemical Foam Carbon dioxide All of the above.
When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use __________. dry chemical foam (stored-pressure type) water (cartridge-operated) carbon dioxide
A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with __________. Water (cartridge-operated) high-velocity fog dry chemical foam
On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable? Carbon dioxide Dry chemical Water (stored pressure) Foam
A class B fire is most successfully fought by __________. using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material fire-resistant
The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class __________. A B C D
An oil fire is classified as class __________. A B C D
A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire? A B C D
If ignited, which material would be a class B fire? Diesel Oil Wood Paper Magnesium
Which of the following classifications does an oil fire belong to? D C B A
Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire? A B C D
A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using __________. CO2 low-velocity fog salt water foam
Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires? Dry chemical and soda-acid Dry chemical and carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide and foam (stored pressure) Foam (stored pressure) and soda-acid
Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________. nonconducting nontoxic water based able to absorb heat
What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire? Weight Cost Electrical nonconductivity Temperature
Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires? Dry chemical Water fog CO2 Foam
Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires? Foam and water (stored pressure) Dry chemical and carbon dioxide Foam and carbon dioxide Foam and dry chemical
Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property? Cooling ability Penetrating power Nonconductivity Leaves no residue
Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel? Classes A and D Classes C and D Classes B and C Classes A and B
A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire? A B C D
A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________. A B C D
Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are class __________. A B C D
A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class? A B C D
A class C fire would be burning __________. fuel oil wood celluloid electrical insulation
What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire? Flashover Explosion Possibility of reflash Electrocution or shock
Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire? CO2 Foam Dry powder Dry chemical
Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire? Water Sand Dry chemical CO2
If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be __________. steam CO2 water fog dry powder
An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________. A B C D
A magnesium fire is classified as class __________. A B C D
Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as class __________. A B C D
Fires are grouped into what categories? Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 Combustible solids, liquids, and gases Flammable solids, liquids, and gases Class A, B, C, and D
Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment? Automatic fire detection system Watchman's supervisory system Smoke detection system Manual fire detection system
Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________. pressure loss due to air being heated an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam smoke sensors the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)? Auxiliary machinery space, starboard side, frame 104 Machinery space, starboard side, frame 123 Machinery space, port side, frame 127 Machinery space, port side, frame 131
Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office. Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to gain entry? Halon Room CO2 Room Portside, Frame 132 Starboard side, frame 132
In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located? Crew Mess Engine Room Chief Mate's Office Gangway
You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located at frame 107? Smoke detector and bell alarm Fire main valve and 1 1/2" fire hose CO2 fire extinguisher and 1 1/2" fire hose None of the above
In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse? Water Tight Door(s) Switch Fire Alarm Panel Copy of Fire Control Plan Emergency Lighting Board
You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found in that exact location? Bilge pump(s) Emergency fire pumps Generator Lube Oil Purifier
In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess represent on the Fire Control Plans? primary means of escape path of forced ventilation search and rescue route nearest door
In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing represent? CO2 and Halon remote pull stations CO2 and Halon bottle room CO2 and Halon protected spaces CO2 and Halon bell alarms
You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105 and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a ladder well? portside ladderwell, frame 106 starboard side ladderwell, frame 119 portside ladderwell, frame 93 Either A or B
As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what is the result? Ventilation ducts are secured Engine room water tight doors are secured CO2 or Halon extinguishing systems will be energized The general alarm will sound the fire and emergency signal
A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following? be written in Spanish and English. be posted in every space crewmembers eat and socialize. provide a snapshot of the area of every crew member's stateroom in their stateroom. have a duplicate set of plans permanently stored outside the deck house.
There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire? H2O Halon CO2 Drenching
Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent? Secondary means of escape Missing person search pattern Primary means of escape Direction of fire main
Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system? 4 3 2 1
Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found? Port side fan room, frame 138 Starboard side exterior, frame 132 Port side of the wheelhouse, frame 122 Starboard side of the wheelhouse, frame 122
A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________. given to each crewmember in booklet form. permanently posted for the guidance of ship's officers. posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck on the vessel. translated into three languages: English, French and Spanish.
Using the vessel fire control plan in illustration D036SA below, what emergency equipment is located in the scullery? Gaylord system release valve Heat Detector Fire alarm pull box Fixed water extinguishing system
In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or __________. German Japanese French Spanish
You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Using the fire control plan in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furniture? Midships, frame 123 Starboard side, frame 123 Starboard side, frame 132 Port side, frame 132
The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan? General arrangement Lines Midship section Subdivision
Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan? Inboard profile General arrangement Subdivision and stability Partial
Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies? Blueprint Microfilm Booklet Form None of the above
Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan? Maritime Administration U.S. Coast Guard International Maritime Organization Vessel's classification society
The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization? National Fire Protection Agency U.S. Coast Guard International Maritime Organization International Association of Classification Societies
Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan? Fire control plan Dry chemical monitor Fire and emergency signals Gas detector
Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan? Secondary means of escape Bilge pumps Fire main system Muster lists
Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan? Ventilation fan capacity Ventilation fan control Ventilation dampers Ventilation fan location
On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT? Fire pump capacity Fire pump(s) location Fire station locations Diameter of fire main
The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems? Ship construction Ventilation Fixed fire suppression All of the above.
On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT? Extinguishing agent cylinder location Instructions for activation of system Spaces protected by the system Remote cylinder release(s)
Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans? Communication plan Secondary means of escape Smoke detectors All watertight doors
What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships? show passengers where to evacuate in event of fire guidance for the officer-in-charge in the event of fire facilitate shore-side fire fighters in fighting fire aboard the vessel All of the above.
In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols designate the directional means of escape? 61 and 62 61and 19 62 and 63 63 and 69
Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire? 36 56 26 47
You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the primary means of escape? 61 62 63 69
In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s) represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B" fire? 47 16 and 36 16 and 47 26
In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire? 56 36 47 26
In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol? 1 30 37 69
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s) represent part of the vessel's ventilation system? 18 69 34 All of the above.
In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301? 10 11 12 44
In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control plans? 44 43 11 10
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (7)? CO2 horn space protected by CO2 release station for CO2 CO2 alarm
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (16)? foam monitor (gun) space protected by foam foam nozzle foam station
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (56)? water monitor (gun) space protected by water sprinkler head water fog applicator
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (39)? water sprinkler foam none of the above
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (64)? infrared gas detector dry chemical installation inert gas installation inertial gauge
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (30)? fire station foam station fuel shutoff none of the above
You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of escape? 19 62 61 63
On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle room is designated by which symbol? 42 9 8 7
On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical releasing station is designated by which symbol? 42 47 48 50
On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA below? 51 19 54 53
Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent? Sprinkler valves Foam valves Bilge pump valves Fire main with fire valves
In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan? 30 59 60 58
As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan? 30 58 59 60
As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan? 30 58 59 60
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (67)? inert gas installation gas detector emergency switchboard emergency generator
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (37)? high expansion foam supply trunk a fire station a fire alarm panel diving operations
On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol helps to control the spread of fire? 33 34 32 68
On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol represents a fire damper? 32 33 34 53
Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires? 48 47 16 26
As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan? 30 58 59 68
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an international shore connection? 54 53 49 51
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a push button for a fire alarm? 2 5 6 24
Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the vessel? 55 53 1 All of the above.
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire alarm panel? 37 58 30 68
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a space protected by foam? 13 15 17 16
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire pump? 19 21 22 54
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a heat detector? 18 31 49 63
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency fire pump? 19 21 22 54
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire station? 1 30 51 58
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the direction of primary means of escape? 58 61 62 63
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency generator? 20 32 67 68
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT contain personal protective equipment? 58 59 60 30
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a bilge pump? 22 21 19 54
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire? 23 16 12 7
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire? 44 39 36 14
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire main with fire valves? 17 34 51 56
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room? 12 24 43 57
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley? 31 49 55 68
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a NON-portable extinguisher? 14 25 57 36
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part of the ship's foam system? 50 3 65 16
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed? 54 22 19 21
Which of the following when removed will extinguish a fire? sodium carbon dioxide oxygen nitrogen
What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire? Pressure Electricity Smoke Chain reaction
All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. oxygen electricity fuel heat
Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________. removing the fuel removing the heat interrupting the chain reaction removing the oxygen
Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________. 16 (%) 18 (%) 21 (%) 25 (%)
The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called __________. explosive range ignition temperature combustion temperature flash point
Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn? The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range." The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point. The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity. All of the above.
The vapor pressure of a substance __________. is not affected by temperature decreases as temperature increases increases with the temperature may increase or decrease as the temperature rises
You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride? You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride. It will explode if exposed to a flame. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal. It will burn rapidly once ignited.
Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature? Both are higher than normal burning temperatures. The ignition temperature is always higher. They are not necessarily related. The flash point is always higher.
The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
The explosive range of Bunker C mixed with air is __________. 0% to 1% by volume 1% to 5% by volume 5% to 10% by volume 10% to 20% by volume
The explosive range of Diesel Oil mixed with air is __________. 0% to 1% by volume 0.8% to 5.3% by volume 1.3% to 6.0% by volume 6.3% to 12.1% by volume
The flammable limit of methyl ethyl ketone is from __________. 1.8% to 11.5% 6.6% to 12.1% 9.6% to 15.1% 12.2% to 18.1%
The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________. at which a liquid will burn steadily at which a liquid will give off flammable vapors that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily at which a liquid will explode
Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance? It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range. It is lower than the ignition temperature. It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will continue to burn. It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite.
You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________. when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom
The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________. ignition temperature flammable range conversion index flash point
Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________. overloaded electrical circuits rags soaked in linseed oil dirty swabs and cleaning gear partially loaded fuel tanks
Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________. chemical action within a substance conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites All of the above.
Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion? Scrap rubber Coal Leather All of the above.
What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur? 1 (%) 10 (%) 15 (%) 21 (%)
A spanner is a __________. cross connection line between two main fire lines special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line tackle rigged to support a fire hose None of the above
The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you __________. pull the nozzle handle all the way back toward the operator push the nozzle handle forward as far as it will go pull the nozzle handle back to a position where the handle is perpendicular to the plane of the nozzle insert a fog applicator between the fire hose and nozzle
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward position, the nozzle will __________. produce high-velocity fog shut off the water produce a straight stream produce low-velocity fog
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will __________. produce high-velocity fog shut off the water produce low-velocity fog produce a straight stream
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________. produce low-velocity fog produce a straight stream produce high-velocity fog shut off the water
As seen in illustration D004SA below, what action must be taken before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle? move the handle to position 2 install the high-velocity nozzle tip move the handle to position 1 remove the high-velocity nozzle tip
Fire hose should be washed with __________. mild soap and fresh water caustic soap salt water and a wire brush a holystone
To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use __________. fresh water and soap glycerine kerosene graphite
What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose? Talc and fine sandpaper Bearing grease and a wire brush Fish oil and a soft brush Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush
A double male coupling is one that __________. has outside threads on both ends takes two men to operate has left hand twist has inside threads on both ends
Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE? Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds together. Roll the hose starting at the male end. Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it up. Roll the hose starting at the female end.
Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage? Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose. Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings. The threads on the male end are protected by the hose. Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process.
The canvas covering of fire hose is called the __________. line cover outer hose jacket casing
When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________. threads are lubricated hose is led out nozzle is attached to the hose female coupling has a gasket
To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________. replace the gasket in the female coupling replace the gasket in the male coupling rethread the male coupling reduce fire pump pressure
No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________. prevent spray on electrical equipment make connecting easier avoid kinking the hose avoid personal injury during connection
The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing __________. 45° upward vertically upward vertically downward All of the above.
Fire hose couplings __________. should be greased frequently should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals are specially hardened to prevent crushing
What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose? 1 2 3 4
Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose? The fire hose should be partially charged before deploying it from the fire station. Back-up hosemen should be positioned wherever the hose makes a significant turn. A 1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and hoseman. The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to prevent kickback.
Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose? Use of a spanner wrench when attaching nozzles or additional lengths of hose is always critical. A 1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and hoseman. Back-up hosemen should be placed wherever the hose makes a significant turn. The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to prevent kickback.
What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose? 4 2 3 1
A fire hose has a __________. male coupling at both ends female coupling at both ends male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the hydrant end
A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________. fire pumps are used for purposes other than supplying water to the fire main fire-main system is not charged fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations vessel is in port
The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________. the hose could burst the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury personnel might trip over the hose water damage to vessel's cargo or structure
What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system? Exposed hard piping The hydrant valve The fire pump The fire hose
What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump? Height of the discharge pipe Length of the discharge pipe Difference between the discharge and suction pressures Sum of discharge and suction pressures
Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI? 50 feet 100 feet 150 feet 200 feet
Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI? 100 feet 50 feet 200 feet 150 feet
The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________. the length of the applicator the method of breaking up the water stream a difference in water pressure All of the above.
High-velocity fog __________. is a finer, more diffuse water spray than low-velocity fog extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond the nozzle requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi
The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have __________. lesser range than high-velocity fog greater range than high-velocity fog greater range than a solid stream about the same range as high-velocity fog
You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________. produce a straight stream produce high-velocity fog shut off the water produce low-velocity fog
If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would __________. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back order the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way forward attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down
The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________. has a screw thread end which connects to the all-purpose nozzle can be used in conjunction with both 1-1/2 inch and 2-1/2 inch all-purpose nozzles has a 90° bend at its discharge end has a spray pattern 12 feet in diameter
To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would __________. attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the nozzle simply move the handle to the vertical position on the nozzle attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the bronze nozzle tip attach the bronze nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the nozzle
With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________. putting the handle of the nozzle in the forward position inserting an applicator in the nozzle directing a straight stream of water against the ship's structure the combination nozzle only when the water pressure exceeds 125 psi
One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________. converts a stream of water into a fog increases the amount of water reaching the fire can fit any size hose can spray two streams of water at the same time
On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is all the way forward is __________. shut solid stream spray fog
A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________. a solid stream only low-velocity fog only a solid stream and foam a solid stream and fog
The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle should always be __________. attached by a chain stored in the clip at each fire station painted red for identity as emergency equipment coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________. about the same range as low-velocity fog greater range than a solid stream greater range than low-velocity fog lesser range than low-velocity fog
The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________. drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters break up burning material get the most water possible on the fire shield fire fighters from radiant heat
The international shore connection __________. allows hook up of fire fighting water from shore facilities allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities satisfies pollution prevention requirements
The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway? They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge. They are to be kept closed at all times. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.
Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because __________. they recharge faster in a well ventilated space they generate heat of the toxic fumes they emit they emit hydrogen
What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors? Loose wiring Explosion proof lights Static electricity An open running electric motor
Which may ignite fuel vapors? Static electricity An open and running motor Loose wiring All of the above.
Spontaneous ignition can result from __________. careless disposal or storage of material an unprotected drop-light bulb worn electrical wires on power tools smoking in bed
A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, you should __________. cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the galley door advance the hose team into the galley without any preparatory action keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been consumed by the fire have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisher
A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of __________. a grease fire in the ventilation system spreading through the engineering space causing loss of stability contaminating food with extinguishing agent
Fires are grouped into what categories? Flammable solids, liquids, and gases Class A, B, C, and D Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________. convection conduction ventilation radiation
Fire may be spread by which means? Convection Direct radiation Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces All of the above.
Convection spreads a fire by __________. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal burning liquids flowing into another space
Radiation spreads a fire by __________. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal burning liquids flowing into another space heated gases flowing through ventilation systems transferring heat across an unobstructed space
The spread of fire is prevented by __________. shutting off the oxygen supply removing combustibles from the endangered area cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire All of the above.
To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. shut off all electrical power close all openings to the area remove combustibles from direct exposure cool the bulkhead around the fire
To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. shut off all electric power remove combustibles from direct exposure cool the bulkheads around the fire close all openings to the area
If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________. secure the ventilation enter and use a portable extinguisher release the CO2 flooding system open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________. stored in a suitable gear locker covered at all times to protect from ignition sources returned to the paint locker after each use stored safely at the work site until work is completed
The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard? They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the ignition point. They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or range fires. In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height. Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is difficult to extinguish.
You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________. dismissal from fire and emergency stations fire and emergency abandon ship man overboard
Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________. alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds 1 short blast on the whistle more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general alarm
In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of extinguishment water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to __________. start the fire pump batten down the engine room shut off the fuel supply apply carbon dioxide to the fire
When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used? All-purpose nozzle Solid stream water nozzle Carbon dioxide Foam
If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to __________. secure the fuel supply and ventilation to the engine room discharge the fixed CO2 system into the engine room have all of your crew get into the liferaft maneuver your vessel into the wind
When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line? Close the fuel line valve. Cast the barge off the wharf. Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents. Check the spread of the fire with foam.
An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to __________. stop ventilation stop the vessel apply water to extinguish the fire de-energize the circuit
There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should __________. ventilate the quarters as much as possible prepare to abandon ship attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding the alarm close all ventilation to the quarters if possible
You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose use a portable CO2 extinguisher determine the cause of the fire use a portable foam extinguisher
A fire must be ventilated __________. if compressed gas cylinders are stowed in the compartment on fire to minimize heat buildup in adjacent compartments to prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters when using an indirect attack on the fire such as flooding with water
What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire? The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher Danger of shock to personnel Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces Maintaining electrical power
Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________. completely closing the compartment leaving the compartment open to the air increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers closing the compartment except for the ventilators
You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the __________. compartment is left open to the air compartment is closed and ventilators are opened compartment is closed and airtight air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers
When should a fire be ventilated? When using the fixed CO2 system When attacking the fire directly When using a steam smothering system All of the above.
A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST __________. determine the source of the fire stop the ventilation sound the general alarm attempt to extinguish the fire
A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________. there is an outlet for the smoke and heat at least two fog streams can be used the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure using a 2-1/2 inch hose
When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________. stay low by crouching or kneeling on deck station personnel on the hot deck immediately above the fire rotate personnel, due to heat stress All of the above.
Control of fire should be addressed __________. immediately after restoring vital services immediately following establishment of fire boundaries following control of flooding
When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________. station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spread not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire quickly. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck All of the above.
When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________. foam spray a straight stream of water low-velocity fog high-velocity fog
When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________. a straight stream of water low-velocity fog high-velocity fog foam spray
What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting? Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structures Cover the fire with foam Smother the fire with a blanket or similar object
When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should __________. attempt to isolate the fire from the LPG cool the bottles or remove them from the fire area place insulating material over the bottles see that the valves on all LPG bottles are closed
Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________. evacuation of the vessel opening dead spaces to check for heat or fire sounding the "all clear" signal operation of the emergency generator
When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system use high-expansion foam activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire
A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________. interrupting the chain reaction cooling the gas below the ignition point cutting off the supply of oxygen stopping the flow of gas
Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley? A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores" An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts
When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton? 100 gallons 500 liters 64 cubic feet 35 cubic feet
If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel? Removing burned debris from the cargo hold Pumping fire-fighting water overboard Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______. the range hood extinguishing system foam water fire dampers
When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best? Solid stream directed toward the overhead Straight stream directed into the center of the fire High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream
The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________. CO2 foam water dry chemical
The primary danger in helicopter fires is __________. loss of stability heat damage to helicopter structure rotating and flying debris burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________. doused with water to prevent reflash remain closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool checked for oxygen content opened and burned material removed
When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________. obtain the best available air for breathing maneuver with the hose more easily allow the heat and steam to pass overhead None of the above
Oil fires are best extinguished by __________. removing the fuel spraying with water cooling below the ignition temperature cutting off the supply of oxygen
You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST? Acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus. Break out the nearest fire hose. Attempt to determine what is burning. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed.
You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions? Close the door to the room. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Break out the nearest fire hose. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher.
You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________. secure ventilation to the room acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus close the door to the room begin breaking out the nearest fire hose
A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take? Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container. Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel. Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded. Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly.
Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire? Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil
The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________. cooling ability of the firefighting agent class of the fire complete containment of the fire size of the fire when initially observed
Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? Carbon monoxide Nitric oxide Hydrogen sulfide Carbon dioxide
A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition? Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a dry stores locker. Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet condition. Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric light bulb. Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail.
Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________. deteriorate and give off noxious gasses attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground spontaneously heat and catch fire None of the above
The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the __________. auto-ignition point lower explosive limit (LEL) flash point threshold limit value (TLV)
Accumulations of oily rags should be __________. kept in the paint locker discarded as soon as possible kept in nonmetal containers cleaned thoroughly for reuse
A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________. cool to burn rich to burn dense to burn lean to burn
The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________. removing combustibles from the endangered area removing smoke and toxic gases by ensuring adequate ventilation shutting off the oxygen supply cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by __________. radiation conduction spontaneous combustion convection
The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level) capable of supporting combustion incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit) in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basis
The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit) capable of supporting a fire once started not safe for ballasting capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion? Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis. Use an explosimeter. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________. 0% to 1% 1% to 10% 10% to 15% 12% to 20%
Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________. in a metal container with a tight cap used only under the supervision and direction of a ship's officer used only when a pressurized fire hose is laid out ready for immediate use tightly capped and stowed with other tools near the job site when securing at the end of the day
You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas? Within the flammable range The explosimeter is defective and giving a false reading. Less than the flammable range Over the flammable range
A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________. vapor to oxygen the autoignition concentration the flammable limit concentration the lower explosive limit concentration
Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________. flash point fire point upper explosive limit lower explosive limit
When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________. chlorine CO2 leaded gasoline sour crude
A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases? In the lower level of the pumproom On the deck outside the pumproom In the middle level of the pumproom In the upper level of the pumproom
Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks? A liquid cargo meter A combustible gas indicator A flame safety lamp All of the above.
What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space? A combination combustible gas and oxygen indicator A combustible gas indicator A flame safety lamp An oxygen indicator
An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is __________. combustible gases present sufficient oxygen in a compartment to support life hydrogen gas present All of the above.
The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________. concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined space amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive limit in a confined space None of the above
What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator? Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for no more than 2 minutes None of the above
Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator? The instrument can detect hydrogen gas. Only one level of the tested space need be sampled by the instrument. Exposure to flue gas has no effect on the instrument. Prolonged exposure to CO2 can result in false readings.
What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker? H2S meter Flame safety lamp Combustible gas indicator Oxygen indicator
Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________. litmus paper an oxygen breathing apparatus a combustible gas indicator an oxygen indicator
Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen? 6 (%) 10 (%) 15 (%) 21 (%)
After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________. the tested compartment's air water CO2 fresh air
When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument? Rise to the correct reading and then, slowly fall to zero as the oxygen in the sample is consumed Slowly rise to the correct reading and then remain stationary Move back and forth and finally stabilize at the correct reading after about 10 seconds Rise to the correct reading immediately and then rise slowly to a false reading as the operating temperature increases
You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter? No wait is necessary, the reading occurs immediately. At least 20 seconds At least 10 seconds At least 5 seconds
If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done? Adjust the final reading by the amount the needle is displaced from zero. Check the sampling tube for blockage. Replace the batteries. Replace the platinum filament.
What is used to test a tank for oxygen content? Vapor indicator Atmosphere analyzer kit Combustible gas indicator None of the above
Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________. where its specific gravity is measured where it is mixed with nitrogen where it is ignited by a sparking device over an electrically heated platinum filament
Before entering the chain locker, you should __________. have someone standing by de-energize the windlass make sure there is sufficient air within the locker All of the above.
What can cause a lack of oxygen in a chain locker? Absorption Oxidation Osmosis Evaporation
Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________. litmus paper oxygen breathing apparatus oxygen indicator combustible gas indicator
As an extinguishing agent, foam __________. extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature is most effective on burning gases which are flowing should be directed at the base of the fire conducts electricity
Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire? It cools the surface of the liquid. It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied. It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire. It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil.
Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class __________. A and class C fires B and class C fires A and class B fires A, class B, and class C fires
A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________. the bridge controls combustible metals oil drums generators
Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________. chemical action smothering cooling inerting the air
How does foam extinguish an oil fire? By increasing the weight of the oil By removing the fuel source from the fire By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature By excluding the oxygen from the fire
Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire? To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire spreads To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from igniting
Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________. completely covers the top of the burning liquid is kept saturated with low-velocity water fog mixes with the burning fuel oil penetrates to the bottom of the fire
Foam extinguishes a fire by __________. chemical combination with burning material smothering the burning material absorbing the burning material organic destruction of the burning material
Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE? To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire. Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires. Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing. Foam conducts electricity.
Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam? Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire. Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising.
The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________. spray directly on the base of the fire sweep the fire with the foam flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface spray directly on the surface of the fire
A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________. combustible metallic solids solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber a piece of electrical equipment flammable liquids
Portable-foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on what classes of fires? A and B B and C A and C A, B, and C
Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid? Motor gasoline Jet fuel Alcohol Crude petroleum
Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on? Classes A & C Classes B & C Classes A & B All of the above.
In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________. the maximum water pressure to be used is 50 psi each pound of foam powder produces about 800 gallons of chemical foam the speed of foam production is slower at lower water temperatures fresh water only should be used
When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, a 5-gallon can of liquid foam will last __________. 1-1/2 minutes 15 minutes 5 minutes 2-1/2 minutes
Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________. gives the nozzleman more freedom of movement, since it can be placed anywhere in the hose line increases the rate of foam production increases the size of foam bubbles formed improves the extinguishing properties of foam
Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________. 2 times greater 10 times greater 97 times greater 94 times greater
One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________. 10 gallons of foam 25 gallons of foam 100 gallons of foam 500 gallons of foam
One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________. 8 to 10 gallons of foam 25 to 50 gallons of foam 100 to 200 gallons of foam 500 to 1000 gallons of foam
Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply? 200 gallons 420 gallons 667 gallons 986 gallons
When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________. be lighter be more heat resistant not cling to vertical surfaces be wetter
When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________. be lighter be more heat resistant cling to vertical surfaces be dryer
When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________. be drier not cling to vertical surfaces be heavier be more heat resistant
Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________. in open bins in a cool dry place in a freezer at a temperature not less than 80°F
Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________. can be used to combat combustible metal fires it provides cooling as a secondary effect works well on extinguishing electrical fires All of the above.
One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam __________. is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters cannot be made with salt water conducts electricity
Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________. radiation conduction convection direct contact
The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries is best prevented by __________. covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible natural or mechanical ventilation securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting brackets
Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________. less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge ventilation avoids CO2 build up ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery
The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________. prevent the accumulation of explosive gases prevent movement of the battery in rough waters protect against accidental shorting across terminals protect the hull from leaking electrolyte
When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________. operated continuously while vapors may be present available on standby for immediate use operated intermittently to remove vapors shut down if an explosive mixture is present
It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________. allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire protect fire fighting personnel from smoke extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering
In battery charging rooms, exhaust ventilation should be provided __________. near the batteries at the lowest point only when charging is in progress at the highest point
Fighting a fire in the galley poses the additional threat of __________. spreading through the engineering space contaminating food with extinguishing agent loss of stability a grease fire in the ventilation system
The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.
Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________. remotely operated valves heat or smoke detectors fusible links CO2 system pressure switches
Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________. a break-glass and pull-cable system electrical controls on the bridge a mechanical arm outside the vent duct the heat of a fire melting the link
Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________. remote operated valve CO2 system pressure switch fusible link heat or smoke detector
Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________. the fire to spread through the ventilation system fixed foam systems to be ineffective the accumulation of explosive gases faster cooling of the fire
CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following? chemical action cooling smothering All of the above.
Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire? Electrical Burning oil Paint All of the above.
In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher? Check the hose and nozzle for clogs. Discharge a small amount to see that it works. Check the external pressure gage. Weigh the powder in the canister.
Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by __________. recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling with powder puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide? It is lighter than air. It is used mostly on class A fires. It is an inert gas. All of the above.
Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by __________. breaking the chain reaction cooling smothering oxygen dilution
How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher? Pull pin, squeeze grip. Break the rupture disc. Point the horn down. Turn cylinder upside-down.
Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________. II, III, and IV I, II, and III III, IV, and V IV and V
A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of __________. 15 lbs 25 lbs 35 lbs 45 lbs
When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical_________. dissipates quickly is not an effective agent on Class B fires is rapidly absorbed by the liquid does little or no cooling
When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________. is lighter than air is harmless to cargo and crew is effective if used promptly on an oil fire has a greater cooling effect than water
After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________. recharged retagged hydrostatically tested put back in service if some CO2 remains
An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________. spilled liquids such as oil or paint high voltage electrical gear a trash can a mattress
Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher? Pressure test the discharge hose. Inspecty and weigh the cartridge. Test the pressure gauge for correct reading. Replace the dry chemical.
Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide? It is non-conductive. It is heavier than air. It is used on class B and C fires. All of the above.
A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________. labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15% replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE? When possible, the fire should be attacked from windward. Directing the stream into burning flammable liquid may cause splashing. The stream should be directed at the base of the fire. At temperatures of less than 32°F, the extinguisher must be recharged more often.
When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged? After each use When the air temperature exceeds 90°F Every 6 months Every 12 months
What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents? Effective on electrical equipment Non-corrosive Effective even if ventilation is not shut down Will not deteriorate in storage
Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting? More protective against re-flash Compatible with all foam agents Cleaner All of the above.
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? Foam Water spray CO2 Water stream
What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher? It is nontoxic. It offers lasting, effective protection against burn-back. It has a greater duration. It provides a heat shield for the operator.
Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel? Foam Water (stored pressure) Carbon dioxide Carbon tetrachloride
The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________. breaking the chain reaction shielding of radiant heat smothering the CO2 that is formed by heat
When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________. could come off in your hands becomes extremely hot is placed directly in the flames becomes extremely cold
In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________. open the discharge valve invert the CO2 extinguisher remove the locking pin squeeze the two trigger handles together
Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers? You should direct the spray directly into the fire. You should direct the spray at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire. You should direct the spray at the base of the fire. All of the above.
When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the __________. center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to bottom base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward as they diminish bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upward as they diminish
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire over the top of the fire at the main body of the fire at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage? Greater range More cooling effect Effective on metal fires Cleaner
Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents? It is safer for personnel. It is cheaper. It is most effective on a per unit basis. It causes minimal damage.
The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________. foam water stream water fog carbon dioxide
Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical? The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire. The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction. The powder forms a solid coating over the surface. The dry chemical smothers the fire.
An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________. lack of toxicity burn-back protection the multipurpose extinguishing ability cooling ability
Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire? The dry chemical leaves a residue. It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area. CO2 will not dissipate in air. The dry chemical is a conductor.
CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge? 80 (%) 85 (%) 90 (%) 95 (%)
When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemicals should be __________. used to shield against electrical shock aimed at the source of the flames shot off a flat surface onto the flames fogged above the equipment
Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility? Water (pump tank) Carbon dioxide Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) Water (cartridge-operated)
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire at the main body of the fire over the top of the fire at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________. greater range cleanliness cooling ability All of the above.
In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher is limited to __________. 2 to 4 feet 3 to 8 feet 9 to 12 feet 10 to 15 feet
One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________. it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumes it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectiveness
To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________. slip the "D yoke" ring in the lower handle over the upper handle reinsert the locking pin open the discharge valve invert the CO2 extinguisher
Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires? B and C only A only B only A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher
Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of __________. water (stored pressure) fire extinguishers CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers foam fire extinguishers All of the above.
In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds __________. 20% of weight of charge 10% of weight of full bottle 10% of weight of charge 15% of weight of full bottle
A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________. gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical air pressure from the hand pump attached to the extinguisher pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher
You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________. weighed checked for pressure loss sent ashore to an approved service facility discharged and recharged
Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________. exhaust ventilation supply and exhaust ventilation mechanical and natural ventilation fuel supply
Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________. three separate controls to release the CO2 the same control releasing the CO2 a separate control to release the CO2 two separate controls to release the CO2
Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system? Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space. An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied. Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve. All of the above.
Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________. 20 seconds 40 seconds one minute two minutes
The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________. an explosive reaction frostbite skin burns asphyxiation
There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________. that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pump there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases the lack of cooling effect on heated materials
The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________. open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle sound evacuation alarm, pull handle
Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space? Respiratory arrest Frostbite Electric shock Damaged eardrums
Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE? It cannot be smelled. It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space. It displaces the oxygen in the air. It cannot be seen.
While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________. make sure all doors and vents are secured retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2 secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders
Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________. persons in the space wear gas masks ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space ventilation system is kept operating persons in the space wear damp cloths over their mouths and nostrils
The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at a temperature of __________. 70°F 100°F 125°F 135°F
CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________. the control box glass is broken the control cylinders have been completely discharged pressure from the control cylinders is detected the discharge valve is open
Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an alarm which sounds __________. if all doors and ventilation are not secured for the first 20 seconds CO2 is being released into the space for at least 20 seconds prior to release of CO2 during the entire period that CO2 is being released
A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent __________. over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase flooding of a space where personnel are present over pressurization of the space being flooded
Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________. secure the engine room ventilation evacuate all engine room personnel secure the machinery in the engine room All of the above.
The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer? 200 lbs 205 lbs 210 lbs 220 lbs
The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 cylinder is 80 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 60 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer? 55 lbs 68 lbs 78 lbs 82 lbs
Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or __________. spaces open to the atmosphere the paint locker the engine room cargo holds
CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every __________. 2 years 6 years 12 years year
In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________. one control two controls three controls none of the above
A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________. two controls one control three controls none of the above
The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________. 300 pounds 400 pounds 500 pounds 600 pounds
In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________. 2 3 4 6
When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________. 1 2 3 4
In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2 __________. from the cargo control station at the cylinder location from inside the engine room from the bridge
Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system? The door must be kept unlocked. The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable. The compartment must be properly ventilated. The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F.
A crew member reports that the high-pressure alarm light of a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is illuminated. The most probable cause of this condition would be that __________. the pilot cylinder discharge valve is leaking the tank cooling system has malfunctioned an excessive amount of insulation has been installed on the tank and piping an air leak has developed in the tank
What would be a major consequence of the refrigeration system for a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system remaining inoperable? Excessive condensation inside the tank would freeze, causing a restriction in the discharge piping. The warmed charge of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire. The entire charge might eventually be lost due to CO2 venting out through the relief valve. Liquid CO2 would vent out through the safety valve as the temperature increases.
When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space? The number of discharge nozzles in the space determines the quantity released. The discharge will continue until the temperature of the space returns to its normal ambient temperature. The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections that are individually designated for each of the protected spaces. A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve, and is preset for each space.
The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________. 70°F at 150 PSI 0°F at 300 PSI 70°F at 500 PSI 0°F at 50 PSI
The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________. 75°F 100°F 130°F 165°F
A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________. alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a vapor absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against fires of class __________. A B C D
Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire? Foam Dry Chemical Water CO2
Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires? Dry chemical Water (cartridge-operated) Foam Carbon dioxide
The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is __________. dry chemical foam water carbon dioxide
Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires? Dry chemical Foam (stored-pressure) Carbon dioxide Water (cartridge-operated)
The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is __________. dry chemical carbon dioxide water foam
On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with which chemical? oleum vinyl toluene benzene acrylic acid
The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________. cooling the fire below the ignition temperature removing the oxygen removing combustible material diluting combustible vapors
Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat? CO2 Dry chemical Foam Water
The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is __________. chemical foam carbon dioxide mechanical foam water fog or spray
An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________. Halon 1301 water fog carbon dioxide dry chemical
Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time? Dry chemical Steam Water fog or spray Water stream
Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat? Foam Dry chemical Carbon dioxide Water spray
What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires? Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systems Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier
When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________. the only opening in a passageway is the one from which the nozzle is being advanced pressure builds up in the nozzle which causes a surge of water a bulkhead collapses due to heat and pressure pressure in the fire hose drops below 100 psi
What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire? It has a smothering effect on the fire. It gives more protection to fire fighting personnel. It requires less water to remove the same amount of heat. All of the above.
Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________. fight a magnesium fire fight an electrical fire eliminate smoke from a compartment All of the above.
What is the BEST conductor of electricity? Salt water Fresh water Carbon dioxide Distilled water
The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to __________. protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced alert the crew to the fire extinguish the fire which triggers it
Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken? the bone has been set the fracture is immobilized radio advice has been obtained the wound has been washed
What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid? Control bleeding Reset the bone Immobilize a fracture Reduce pain
You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take? Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and splint. Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint. Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice. Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply a pressure dressing.
Which is the most serious type of fracture? Greenstick Crack Compound Closed
How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR? 1 to 1-1/2 inches 1/2 to 1 inch 1/2 inch or less 1-1/2 to 2 inches
You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do? Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. Re-tip the head and try again.
What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration? be given several shots of whiskey be walked around until he is back to normal be allowed to do as he wishes be kept lying down and warm
You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied? Left chest over the heart Lower half of the sternum Tip of the sternum Top half of the sternum
The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________. holding the jaw down firmly cupping a hand around the patient's mouth applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth keeping the head elevated
While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out? at ten-minute intervals by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes only with the help of two other people without losing the rhythm of respiration
What is the MOST important element in administering CPR? treating for traumatic shock having the proper equipment for the process administering of oxygen starting the treatment quickly
What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation? ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation
What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing? immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary administer oxygen make the victim comfortable in a bunk immediately start CPR
What is a sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration? blue color and lack of breathing vomiting unconsciousness irregular breathing
What should you do before CPR is started? insure the victim is conscious treat any bleeding wounds establish an open airway make the victim comfortable
Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration? drowning poisoning electrocution All of the above.
What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration? monitor blood pressure know all approved methods clear airways use the rhythmic pressure method
After pinching a victim's nostrils, how can a rescuer best provide an airtight seal during mouth to mouth ventilation? by holding the jaw down firmly by applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth by keeping the head elevated by cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
How can you recognize the necessity for administering artificial respiration? blue color and lack of breathing irregular breathing vomiting unconsciousness
What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim? drain water from the lungs before ventilating begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube? A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.
What should a observer do if a victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway? give back blows and something to drink allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the obstruction on his own perform the Heimlich maneuver immediately start CPR
What action should you take if a shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue? immediately administer CPR make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the brain perform the Heimlich maneuver do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious
For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve pain? administer aspirin immerse the burn in cold water apply a bandage to exclude air apply petroleum jelly
In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing? Keeping the patient warm and comfortable Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere Giving stimulants Applying artificial respiration and massage
A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with what liquid? baking soda solution boric acid solution water ammonia
When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding? when the victim is unconscious when all other means have failed to prevent bleeding from minor wounds with puncture wounds
As a last resort, what can a tourniquet can be used for? stop uncontrolled bleeding restrain a delirious victim hold a large bandage in place hold a victim in a stretcher
A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound? Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. Use temporary stitches of sail twine. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. Apply a compression bandage.
What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds? stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops
A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it? push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook cut the skin from around the hook pull it out with pliers have a surgeon remove it
In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled? cooling the wound with ice applying direct pressure to the wound applying a tourniquet submerging the wound in lukewarm water
A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next? Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
How does bleeding from a vein appear? dark red and has a steady flow bright red and slow dark red and spurting bright red and spurting
How does blood flowing from a cut artery appear? dark red and in spurts bright red and in spurts bright red with a steady flow dark red with a steady flow
Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method? heavy application of a disinfectant applying direct pressure to the wound pinching the wound closed pouring ice water directly onto the wound
What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding? a tourniquet above the wound direct pressure on the wound pressure on a pressure point elevating the wounded area
When a person is in shock, how will their skin appear? cold and damp warm and damp warm and dry cold and dry
After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock? Slightly elevate the head and feet. Keep the person awake. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature. Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.
EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position? Head down and feet up Arms above the head Head up and feet down Flat on back with head and feet elevated
In any major injury, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and what secondary condition? application of CPR for traumatic shock removal of any foreign objects administration of oxygen
What is a treatment for traumatic shock? Open clothing to allow cooling of the body. Keep the victim in a sitting position. Administer fluids. Administer CPR.
A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level Arms above their head On their side if unconscious Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
What are the symptoms of sun stroke? Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, skin is clammy. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, skin is cold and clammy. Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot and dry. Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, skin is clammy.
If a person is unconscious from electric shock, the first action is to remove him from the electrical source. What is the secondary action? administer ammonia smelling salts determine if he is breathing massage vigorously to restore circulation check for serious burns on the body
Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, what is the FIRST medical indicator to check for? symptoms of concussion breathing and heartbeat indication of broken bones bleeding injuries
What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime? Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment. The burned area should be immersed in water. Water should be applied in a fine spray.
A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology? Major burn Dermal burn Third-degree burn Lethal burn
A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is this? major burn secondary burn second-degree burn blister burn
When treating a chemical burn, what is the minimum amount of time you should flood the burned area? ten minutes twenty minutes five minutes fifteen minutes
A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury? Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure that nothing is in contact with the burn. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister and apply burn ointment. Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment and bandage. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and bandage.
A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what type of burn is this? Superficial burn Extremity burn Minor burn First-degree burn
Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what substance(s)? alkalies, but not acids acids or alkalies diesel oil acids, but not alkalies
What can be caused by severe airway burns? complete obstruction of respiratory passages nosebleed nausea reddening of cheeks
What is the immediate and most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns? apply an ice pack to the burned area apply ointment to the burned area flood the affected area with water wrap the burn with sterile dressing
What is the most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns? preventing infection cooling with ice water reducing disfigurement reducing swelling
What is the basic emergency care for third degree electrical burns? flood the burned area with warm water for two minutes brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth
What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns? cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings break blisters and remove dead tissue make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation submerge the burn area in cold water
If a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring, what would be the first action to take? apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient flush water over any burned area of the patient remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or wiring get assistance to shut down electrical power in the area
How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated? mineral oil drops directly on the eye warming the eye with moist warm packs laying the person flat on his back gently flooding with water
What is of importance when a patient has an electrical burn? apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes
What should be the FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns? apply a cool damp dressing to his neck have him drink cool liquids maintain an open airway move him to a cool location
How are First-, second-, and third-degree burns classified? according to the area of the body burned according to the size of the burned area according to the source of heat causing the burn according to the layers of skin affected
What is the FIRST treatment for a surface burn? wash the burned area with a warm soap and water solution flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandage it tightly leave the burned area exposed to the atmosphere
What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm? drain any blisters apply antiseptic ointment immerse the arm in cold water scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection
Which of the following medical conditions has symptoms of: burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating rash, blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning? athlete's foot dermatitis chemical burn asphyxia
What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water? it will increase the rate of heat loss from the body it will increase survival time in the water it will increase the water temperature between the body and layers of clothing it will decrease exposure of the body surface to cold water
What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet? immerse the feet in warm water warm the feet with a heat lamp warm the feet at room temperature rub the feet
What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia? running or jumping to increase circulation raising body temperature rapidly by placing hands and feet in hot water laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly bundling the body in blankets to rewarm gradually
Which of the following is a treatment of frostbite? rubbing affected area with ice or snow wrapping area tightly in warm cloths rubbing affected area briskly to restore circulation warming exposed parts rapidly
Which of the following describes the condition of Hypothermia? when the rate of heat loss of the body exceeds the rate of heat production when the rate of heat production in the body exceeds the rate of heat loss when the core body temperature drops to 38 degrees Celsius any instance when a person is emerged in water
Which of the following is a symptom of mild hypothermia? decreased pulse and signs of drowsiness increased pulse and increased breathing rate decreased pulse and increased breathing rate increased pulse and signs of drowsiness
You are attending to survivors after abandoning ship. Several of the personnel have a slow pulse and slow breathing rates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these conditions? mild hypothermia moderate hypothermia dehydration shock
A survivor has been pulled from the water off the coast of Greenland. The patient is in a state of confusion and has ceased shivering. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition? the patient is suffering from frostbite the patient is suffering from mild hypothermia the patient is suffering from moderate hypothermia the patient is suffering from frostnip
Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in preventing hypothermia? once you are in the water keep moving as much as possible to increase circulation remove as many layers of clothing as possible before donning a survival suit to help increase buoyancy consume large amounts of cold liquids to increase hydration apply as many layers of clothing as possible before donning a survival suit to preserve body heat
A person is exhibiting signs of hypothermia and starts to shiver, what does this indicate? the body requires a rapid increase in core temperature the body is dilating blood vessels to conserve heat the body is in the final stages of severe hypothermia the body is trying to generate more heat
You have abandoned ship are in a liferaft with several other members of the crew. One person in the life raft is exhibiting symptoms of hypothermia. Which of the following could you do to aid the victim? keep him in an upright and vertical position use direct body to body contact to warm him give him alcohol to drink massage the persons limbs to increase circulation
Your vessel is taking on water and the order has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following is an effective method of combating hypothermia if you must enter the water? apply multiple layers of clothing before donning an immersion suit only swim if necessary to reach survival craft or other survivors when entering the water attempt to do so gradually All of the above.
When abandoning ship in cold waters, what actions can be taken to minimize the effects of entering the water? utilize embarcation ladders or a fire hose to lower yourself to a survival craft wear a type II PFD and carry an immersion suit with you inflate the life raft on deck, board the raft and wait for the vessel to sink do not abandon the vessel until help arrives on scene
What can you do if a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded? remove it with a piece of dry sterile cotton remove it with a moist, cotton-tipped applicator get them to rub their eye until the object is gone remove it with a match or toothpick
Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious? Elevate his head. Give a stimulant. Treat for shock. Stop severe bleeding.
Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse? carotid artery in the neck brachial artery in the arm femoral artery in the groin radial artery in the wrist
Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in what body part? stomach lower intestines bladder inner ear
Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted? Give pain reliever. Revive the person with smelling salts. Lay the person horizontally. Loosen the clothing.
What is the most useful drug to reduce mild fever? aromatic spirits of ammonia paregoric aspirin bicarbonate of soda
What does first aid mean? medical treatment of accident emergency treatment at the scene of the injury dosage of medications setting of broken bones
What are the symptoms of sea sickness? stomach cramps and diarrhea fever and thirst nausea and dizziness reddening of skin and hives
What is the primary use of antiseptics? speed healing increase blood circulation prevent infection reduce inflammation
What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person? whiskey and water coffee tea ammonia inhalant
What should you avoid when administering first aid? touching the patient before washing your hands unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty instructing bystanders any conversation with the patient
What is normal mouth temperature? 96.4°F 99.7°F 97.5°F 98.6°F
What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries? evaluation surveying triage prioritizing
Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment? Back injuries Burns Suspension of breathing Major multiple fractures
Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment? Eye injuries Major multiple fractures Burns Severe shock
What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries? prescribe treatment for the victim provide the necessary medication accurately diagnose the ailment or injury rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries
What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils? The degree of pain being suffered The degree of vision impairment Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal Whether or not the brain is functioning properly
When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, what must the person giving first aid do? avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance carry the victim to a location where injuries can be assessed place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal pull the victim by the feet
What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim? Look for discoloration of the patient's skin. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body. Check the corresponding (left versus right) parts of the body. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body.
When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with? how to set broken bones the limits of your capabilities which medications to prescribe how to diagnose an illness from symptoms
What should you look for evidence of if a victim is unconscious? head injury irregular breathing broken limbs high fever
What should you look for evidence of if a victim is unconscious? head injury irregular breathing broken limbs high fever
Medical treatment aboard a vessel should not go beyond examination and emergency care without first consulting __________. the shore based superintendent the approved company medical manual the designated medic aboard a medical doctor
Which statement describes a compound fracture? a fracture where more than one bone is broken a fracture where the bone may be visible a fracture where there is never any internal bleeding a fracture where the same bone is broken in more than one place
How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated? not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk be assisted in walking around be examined then walked to a bunk
How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture? attempting to set the fracture preventing further movement of the bone alternately applying hot and cold compresses applying a tourniquet
What should you do if a crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed? lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised administer a liquid stimulant lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness
What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion? slow and deep breathing slow and strong pulse pale and clammy skin flushed and dry skin
What does the treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) of? moving to a shaded area and laying down bathing with rubbing alcohol placing the patient in a tub of cold water All of the above.
What causes heat exhaustion? excessive intake of water when working or exercising excessive increase in body temperature excessive loss of water and salt from the body excessive loss of body temperature
What are the symptoms of heat stroke? cold and moist skin, high body temperature hot and moist skin, high body temperature cold and dry skin, low body temperature hot and dry skin, high body temperature
What is the principle treatment of sunstroke? bathing with rubbing alcohol cooling, removing to shaded area, and lying down drinking ice water All of the above.
How should you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion? administer artificial respiration give him sips of cool water cover him with a light cloth put him in a tub of ice water
How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated? moved to a cool room and told to lie down kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest None of the above are correct
A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma? reduced appetite and thirst slurred speech and loss of coordination only a low grade fever sneezing and coughing
What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix? Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen Diarrhea and frequent urination Extreme sweating and reddening skin Dilated pupils and shallow breathing
What is the primary action when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis? give the patient a laxative to relieve pain give the patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain give the patient aspirin with a glass of water confine to bed until helicopter arrives
What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes? decreased appetite and thirst elevated temperature gain in weight increased appetite and thirst
What should be given to a diabetic who suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious? a glass of milk an ounce of whiskey orange juice soda crackers and water
How is epilepsy, a chronic nervous disorder characterized? severe nausea and cramps muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness sudden thirst and craving for candy severe agitation and desire to get out of closed spaces
What should you do if a crew member is having an epileptic convulsion? completely restrain the victim give the victim artificial respiration give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbital keep the victim from injuring him or herself
What is the most important consideration while providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure? prevent patient from hurting himself give artificial respiration keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep him/her awake remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed
How should the pain be relieved when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis? giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water giving the patient a laxative giving the patient morphine sulfate keeping an ice bag over the appendix area
Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water? to neutralize the poison in the blood to absorb the poison from the blood to increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison to induce vomiting
When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the MOST important symptom to check for is __________. unconsciousness suspension of breathing cold and moist skin slow and weak pulse
What is the major cause of shock in burn victims? increase in body temperature and pulse rate high level of pain massive loss of fluid through the burned area emotional stress
Why should a person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm coverings? to preserve body heat to protect the person from injury during transportation to increase body heat to avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement
What is the best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident? have the victim exercise to increase circulation keep the victim from electrical equipment apply ice packs and avoid excitement keep the victim warm and dry while lying down
Which is a symptom of traumatic shock? Weak, rapid pulse Pale, cold skin Restlessness and anxiety All of the above.
What are the symptoms of a fractured back? pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement
What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board? pack-strap carry two man extremities carry four man log roll fireman's drag
What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient? providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication
What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient? Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction
If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________. jump feet first, holding your knees to your chest hold your arms firmly at your sides and jump feet first dive head first, using your hands to break the surface of the water jump feet first, covering your nose and mouth with one hand and grasping the opposing upper arm with the other
If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel protect your life preserver by holding it above your head wear very light clothing keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first
If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles in a kneeling position spread apart as far as possible held as tightly against your chest as possible
When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________. transfer all the injured to one raft separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection transfer all supplies to one raft secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart
When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________. stay in the immediate area plot a course for the nearest land go in one direction until fuel runs out take a vote on which direction you should go
If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________. head for the closest sea-lanes head for the closest land get a majority opinion remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take? Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
The abandon ship signal is __________. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells
The sea painter of a rescue boat should be led __________. to the foremost point on the vessel forward and outboard of all obstructions forward and inboard of all obstructions up and down from the main deck
Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water? Up to 3 days 8 to 12 days 15 to 20 days 25 to 30 days
What should you do, following the launching of the survival craft, in an abandon ship scenario? go in one direction until fuel runs out take a vote on the direction in which to go stay in the immediate area plot a course for the nearest land
What should you do, if help has not arrived in 10-12 hours, after having abandoned your vessel in a survival craft? take a vote on the direction in which to go shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor plot course for the nearest land go in one direction until the fuel runs out
Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency? Take anti-seasickness pills, if available. Ration food and water supplies. Check pyrotechnic supplies. Determine position and closest point of land.
If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will __________. weigh you down make it more difficult to breathe reduce your body heat preserve body heat
If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, __________. the possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by spreading out reduce the number of liferafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________. maintenance schedule boarding and operating procedures navigational systems fuel consumption rates
During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________. activate the emergency release handle open the doors and start the sprinkler system open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding pass out food and water to personnel
Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water? Up to 3 days 8 to 14 days 15 to 20 days 25 to 30 days
If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should FIRST __________. get out of the raft and swim to safety cut the line to the sea anchor paddle away from the fire splash water over the liferaft to cool it
You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this? The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________. remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch unscrew the deflation plugs plug the safety valve not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________. tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you go in a different direction in search of land
If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________. head for the nearest land let the persons in the boat vote on what to do head for the closest sea-lanes remain in the immediate vicinity
If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________. immediately head for the nearest land remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________. head for the nearest land remain in the immediate vicinity head for the closest sea-lanes vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________. navigate against the current stay in the general location keep the liferaft from capsizing keep personnel from getting seasick
If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current form a raft by lashing their life preservers together form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle
To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________. remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor go in one direction until the fuel runs out take a vote on which direction you should go plot course for the nearest land
Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________. bad weather food and water survivors in the water land
What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft? Pick up other survivors. Open equipment pack. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Post a lookout.
You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________. identify the person in charge of liferaft search for survivors prepare and use radio equipment take measures to maintain morale
You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft? Open the equipment pack. Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel. Decide on food and water rations. Inflate the liferaft floor.
After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft? Get clear of the ship. Open equipment pack. Dry the liferaft floor and inflate. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next? Top up the buoyancy tubes. Decide on food and water rations. Close up the entrances. Prepare for the arrival of rescue units.
What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel? Arrange watches and duties. Prepare for arrival of rescue units. Gather up useful floating objects. Identify the person in charge.
You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft? Ventilate the liferaft of CO2. Cut the painter. Open the equipment pack. Operate the radio equipment.
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? 1 quart 1 can 1 gallon 1 pint
Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it? Small sips only after sunset Small sips at regular intervals during the day One-third the daily ration three times daily The complete daily ration at one time during the day
If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________. cover eyes with one hand when entering the water enter the water feet first wear as much clothing as possible swim with the wind
You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft? Get plenty of rest. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration. Keep the entrance curtains open. All of the above.
When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft? After 12 hours After 24 hours Within 48 hours Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later.
After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________. help to prevent seasickness pass through the body with little absorbed by the system help to prevent fatigue quench thirst for only 2 hours
In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________. thirsty awake wet sick or injured
Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE? Fresh water may be obtained from fish. Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking water is collected. Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft. Seawater should never be consumed.
When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________. it should be strained through a finely woven cloth only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free
The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting reduce appetite by decreasing nausea assist in sleeping prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness
When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________. passed around so all can drink used to boil food poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy saved to be used at a later time
Seawater may be used for drinking __________. under no conditions at a maximum rate of two ounces per day after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
Drinking salt water will __________. dehydrate you be safe if mixed with fresh water protect against heat camps prevent seasickness
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or survival craft. How much water per day should you permit each person to have after the first 24 hours? 1 quart 1 pint 1 gallon 1 can
If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision remain in the immediate vicinity head for the closest sea-lanes head for the nearest land
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should __________. steer a course for the nearest land shut down the engines if installed and put out the sea anchor go in one direction until the fuel runs out steer a course for the nearest sea lane
The AMVER system requires __________. sailing plans to be sent before departure a position report within 24 hours of departure more frequent reports in heavy weather arrival reports to be sent within 8 hours of arrival
What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report? 06 1122 ZD+6 G1722 06APR81 1122Z6 06APR 061722Z
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 030647Z MAR 030947C MAR 3094703 06470303Z
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 094703K 234703Z 022347Z 030947K MAR
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 03MAR1947Z 031947 88 030947W 031947Z
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 309473 124733 MAR 031247Z 030947P
Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________. 24 hours 36 hours 48 hours Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure? 12 24 36 48
The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________. within 12 hours of departure within a few hours before or after departure within 24 hours of departure prior to departure
Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE? In the body of the sailing plan report, the letter G is used to indicate a great circle course. There are four different message reports in the AMVER system. Distress messages should be sent to the AMVER center. The sailing plan may be sent in any reasonable time before departure, but not later than 12 hours after departure.
What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report? NURSE NONE MD MED TECH
What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report? MD PA MT NURSE
How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report? 0543N 54°N 5419N 54.3N
How should longitude 116°54.9'E be written when preparing an AMVER report? 117E 11655E Q1169 116.9E
How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report? 119.9W V19.9 120°W 11956W
How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report? 116.4W 116W 116°24.3W 11624W
How should latitude 51°48.7'S be written when preparing an AMVER report? 52S 51.8S 5149S 0578S
What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report? PR FR DV DR
What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage? PR DP DR SP
AMVER is a system which provides __________. position reporting service weather information navigational information satellite communications
The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by the __________. U.S. Coast Guard Department of Energy Corps of Engineers Minerals Management Service
When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Backwater" means to __________. complete the stroke, come to "Oars", raise oars smartly to vertical, rest handles on footing, trim blades fore and aft complete stroke, stop rowing, dip blade about halfway into water, hold water to stop the way on the boat lift oars to vertical position, trim blades fore and aft with handles resting on footings row in astern motion
If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", you should __________. complete the stroke, hold your oar out from the boat and level with the water lift your oar to a vertical position dip the blade of your oar into the water and leave it there complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swing it forward, and place it in the boat
The command "Oars" means to __________. lift the oars to a vertical position complete the stroke and bring the oars horizontal, blades feathered place the oars in the boat with blades forward place the oars in the rowlocks directly from the boated position
The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is __________. "Oars" "Up oars" "Hold water" "Way enough"
If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________. complete the stroke and hold the oar out of the water dip the blade of your oar into the water vertically and hold it perpendicular to the keel line complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swinging the oar slightly forward, and place it in the boat lift the oar in a vertical position
Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are __________. tripping lines life lines frapping lines tricing lines
In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate? Fleming gear McCluny hook sea painter releasing gear
A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to __________. run faster than a left-handed propeller walk the stern to port in reverse walk the stern to starboard in reverse right itself if capsized
A sea anchor is __________. a heavy anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in deep water a cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect a pad eye to which the sea painter is made fast made of wood if it is of an approved type
The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by __________. an eye splice placed over one of the hooks of the releasing gear a turn around a forward thwart with a toggle pin thru the eye a knot around a thwart All of the above.
The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured __________. to the bow of the lifeboat to an inboard thwart in the forward one-third of the boat anywhere along the inboard side of the boat as close as possible to amidships of the lifeboat
In illustration D016SA below, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the following? releasing gear Fleming gear sea painter McCluny hook
At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last __________. 8 hours 12 hours 24 hours 48 hours
In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5? Gripes Tricing pendant Frapping line Lifeboat
The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is which of the following positions? at the embarkation deck in the secured position waterborne being lowered to sea level
In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line? 1 2 3 4
In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant? a quick release lever a 3/4" shackle the McCluny hook the fore and aft gripes
When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________. prevent the lifeboat from pitching help to prevent broaching completely stop the lifeboat from drifting None of the above
When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________. short enough to cause the pull to be downward long enough to cause the pull to be more horizontal than downward short enough to avoid tangling long enough to reach bottom
What is the purpose of limber holes? To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain To allow for stress and strain in rough waters To allow for air circulation To allow water in the boat to drain overboard
Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________. to keep the boats covered at all times to rinse these boats regularly with salt water to keep an electric charge on the hull at all times not to leave steel or iron tools lying in or near these boats
In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator? Sponge rubber Hard rubber Canvas Leather
Stretchers are fitted in lifeboats to provide a __________. means for rigging the sail place for rowers to brace their feet suitable means for water to drain below the footings place for people to lie down
The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located __________. along the turn of the bilge at the bow and at the stern near the top of the gunwale along each side of the keel
The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________. add strength to the boat make the boat float higher keep the boat afloat if flooded provide a stowage place for provisions
The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color? White Red Yellow International orange
In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red? the thwarts the top 2-1/2 inches of each side the fuel tanks the releasing gear lever
In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________. the emergency rudder the line attached to the tack of the lugsail a canvas awning the aftermost seating
Frapping lines __________. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation position give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the embarkation level
What is TRUE concerning frapping lines? They are normally attached to the davit span. They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered. They are needed only on radial davits. They are used to clear the puddings.
The tricing pendants should be released __________. after the boat is afloat before the gripes are removed after loading the passengers before loading the passengers
The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________. control the fore and aft motion of a lifeboat during lowering hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading provide suspensions for the manropes control the outboard swing of a lifeboat during lowering
On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads is to __________. keep the movement of the davits at the same speed keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position support the manropes prevent vibration during lowering of the boat
Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________. 4, based on the breaking strength 6, based on the maximum working load 5, based on the maximum allowable stress 8, based on the normal working load
Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes? They must be released by freeing a safety shackle. They may be adjusted by a turnbuckle. They should not be released until the boat is in lowering position. They are normally used only with radial davits.
When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate the signal __________. on the downwind side on the upwind side at the stern inside the boat
Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? A lantern A flashlight A red parachute flare A red hand-held flare
The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________. be fitted with a swivel and quick-releasing pelican hook have a long eye splice at the end, and a hardwood toggle should be attached to the thwart with a lanyard be fitted at the end with an approved safety shackle have a long eye splice at the end, and a shackle and pin should be attached to the painter with a lanyard
In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________. placed in a fixed bracket when being used permanently mounted on the lifeboat's centerline clamped to any position convenient for the coxswain to see it mounted in the center of the boat to eliminate deviation
Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept? secured at each end of the boat with a lanyard kept next to the boat coxswain kept in the emergency locker on the ship and brought to the lifeboat when needed kept in a locker
Which represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets? Immediately upon abandoning the vessel At half hour intervals At one hour intervals Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________. straight overhead at the vessel whose attention you are trying to get into the wind about 60 degrees above the horizon
When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________. priming the sprinkler system filling the self righting bags additional flotation an air supply for personnel
When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________. hydraulic pressure is within the specified range steering controls are locked sea anchor is deployed hydraulic starting system has been drained
The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________. hand crank pneumatic system hydraulic system spare battery
The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with __________. nitrogen oxygen nitrogen and oxygen compressed air
With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from a __________. hurricane drop greater than 10 feet nuclear environment fire and toxic environment
The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant __________. fiberglass marine plywood foam steel
Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________. prime the air supply prime the sprinkler system aid in helping personnel breathe start the engine in cold weather
If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________. if the air supply system is open if the limit switch is on if the water sprinkler system is open that the fuel valve is open
The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________. diesel oil liquefied gas kerosene unleaded gasoline
Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following? An air starter on the diesel engine Compartments for the storage of canned drinking water Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear)
The engine in a covered lifeboat is fueled with __________. liquefied gas leaded gasoline diesel oil unleaded gasoline
What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat? Provides air for engine combustion Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft Provides air for passenger respiration Pressurizes water spray system
With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be __________. changing in relation to the speed of the craft equal to outside air pressure greater than outside air pressure less than outside air pressure
When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________. engine should be shut off air cylinder shut-off valve should be closed fuel supply valve should be closed hatches, doors, and oar ports should be closed
Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. contraguide rudders straight rudders balanced rudders unbalanced rudders
The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________. spray oil on the sea to calm it cool the engine cool the craft in a fire spray personnel during a fire
The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to __________. keep the lifeboat from reaching combustion temperature while operating in a fire cool the lifeboat engine keep the lifeboat warm in a cold climate by applying heated water spray from the engine to the boat put out a fire inside the lifeboat
Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat? Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the only distress signals required. A Very pistol with twelve flares is required. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provided.
The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________. the same length as the rowing oars longer than the rowing oars shorter than the rowing oars unrelated to the length of the rowing oars
The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________. used for the stroke oar longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern shorter than the others used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bow
A sweep oar is an oar that is __________. generally shorter than the others and is used to steer with is longer than the others and is used as the stroke oar is raised in the bow of the boat for the steersman to steer by longer than the others used for steering
The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________. becket oar bumpkin oar sweep oar stroke oar
What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged? Sea anchor Spare rudder Steering oar Daggerboard
Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Lifeboat No. 2 is located __________. forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the port side forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the starboard side aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the starboard side All of the above.
Number 3 lifeboat would be __________. behind boat number 1 on the starboard side the forward boat on the starboard side behind boat number 2 on the port side behind boat number 1 on the port side
The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be __________. abaft no.1 lifeboat starboard side abaft no.1 lifeboat port side forwardmost on the starboard side forwardmost on the port side
When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________. to starboard straight to port None of the above
Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of __________. lengthening the distance between successive crests increasing the height of the seas preventing the wave crests from breaking diminishing the height of the seas
When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________. towing the apex end forward with the tripping line slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor by the holding line towing with the tripping line and leaving the holding line slack slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor from the stern
You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________. put out the sea painter fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of water to make it ride better take no action, broaching is recommended in a heavy sea put out the sea anchor
In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. in the same direction as the seas in a series of figure-eights into the seas broadside to the seas
Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________. sink run smoother run faster capsize
When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________. apply the correction for compass error set it on the centerline of the boat keep metal objects away from it All of the above.
If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________. abandon the survival craft check for cracks in the hull check the bilge drain plug shift all personnel to the stern
If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST __________. abandon the survival craft check the bilge drain plug shift all personnel to the stern check for cracks in the hull
A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________. are to shift to one side to right it are seated with seat belts on and doors shut are seated with seat belts on and doors open escape from the craft
The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to __________. right the craft in case of capsizing increase area for radar detection act as a sail in case of a power loss steady the craft in heavy seas
To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________. pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer pull the hook release handle
If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that the survival craft could be dropped into the water? 2 ft. 6 ft. 10 ft. 14 ft.
Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________. run faster run smoother sink capsize
In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. in a series of figure-eights in the same direction as the seas into the seas broadside to the seas
During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to __________. check the water level in the bilge look for food and water release the towline in an emergency help the helmsman steer
Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked? Fuel supply line valve Pressure registered on the accumulator gauge Engine stop control Cold-spark voltage readings test lamp
Why are lifeboats usually double-enders? They require less space for stowing aboard ship. There is no particular reason for this. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to. They can go forward and backward more easily.
The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the __________. bilge strake keel rib sheer strake garboard strake
Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames? The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links. The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew. An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the survivors and the engine. A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump.
Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________. lower ballast tanks are filled with water sea anchor is deployed to windward fuel tanks are not less than half full passengers are strapped to their seats
What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits? To stop the davits from going too fast To cut off the power when the davits hit the track safety stops To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or more from the track safety stops None of the above
Limit switches are used on which davits? Sheath-screw davits Gravity davits Quadrantal davits Radial davits
After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________. hoist man preventer bar brake handle limit switch
Limit switches __________. control the descent rate of a lifeboat control the ascent rate of a lifeboat cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers
You will find a limit switch on a __________. gravity davit radial davit sheath-screw davit liferaft cradle
Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________. the engineers, from a panel in the engine room pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running shutting off the current to the winch All of the above.
In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed? round-bar davits quadrantal davits gravity davits radial davits
While cranking out a quadrantal davit, slippage of the quadrant due to excessive wear or failure of the teeth in the quadrant will cause the __________. limit switch to engage and hold the traveling nut in position davit arm to pivot on the traveling nut and the head to fall outboard traveling nut to lock up in place on the worm gear winch brake to lock in position and prevent lowering the boat
What is required to launch a boat stowed in a crescent davit? Hoist the boat clear of the cradle. Release the outboard part of the cradle. Rig the tricing lines. Crank the crescent out.
Each open lifeboat carried on a vessel on an international voyage must have __________. a mast and a sail hand-propelling gear a davit span with at least 2 lifelines a motor
Which type of davit is not considered to be a mechanical davit? Radial Crescent Sheath-screw boom Quadrantal
The lifeboats on your vessel are stowed on cradles on deck and are handled by sheath-screw boom davits. Which of the following statements about launching a boat is TRUE? The boat should be hoisted a few inches clear of the cradle before cranking out the davits. The outboard section of the cradle must be released. The inboard gripes should be cast off before the outboard gripes. The tricing pendants will automatically bring the boat alongside at the embarkation deck.
A mechanical davit is designed to automatically __________. position the boat at the embarkation station set the brake on the winch energize the winch for the falls lift the boat off the inboard chocks
Many sheath-screw davits have markings to indicate the maximum angle to which they should be cranked out. If the angle is exceeded, the davit __________. will not automatically position the boat at the embarkation station screw may come out of the sheath may jam against the stops will chafe against the falls and may cause their failure
Your vessel is equipped with mechanical davits. When stowing the lifeboat after a drill while underway, you should __________. leave the tricing pendants slack leave the outboard part of the cradle in the down position ensure the falls are taut secure the inboard gripes only
The boat is stowed on the davit rather than on a cradle with which type of davit? Sheath-screw boom Crescent Radial Quadrantal
What is the accepted standard for wire rope falls used in connection with the lifeboat gear? Six by seven galvanized wire rope Six by nineteen regular-lay filler wire rope Six by twenty-four improved plow steel wire rope Six by thirty-seven preformed fiber-core wire rope
Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________. hold the lifeboat to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level be used as a safety line in an emergency
The falls on gravity davits are __________. wire nylon manila All of the above.
The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________. sheath-screw davit gravity davit radial davit bruckner davit
The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the __________. quadrantal radial gravity sheath-screw
On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height? Gravity Quadrantal Radial Sheath-screw
Which davit type may be operated by one person? Radial Quadrantal Sheath-screw Gravity
The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________. position of the counterweight on the brake handle governor brake limit switches emergency disconnect switch
When operating gravity davits, the __________. davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position gripes should be released after the boat is moving tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bitts
What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits? Moisture accumulation in winch motor damaging the electrical wiring Corroding of sheaves on the davits so they will not rotate Freezing of gears in cold weather All of the above.
According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years? 2.5 3 4 5
According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals? Inspected Weight tested End-for-ended Renewed
The pivot pin at the base of a sheath-screw boom davit must be __________. periodically removed for inspection and lubricated replaced at each inspection for certification in the locked position after the boat is cradled and griped down inserted each time before the booms are cranked out
Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship? Fleming Gear The falls Boat hook Sea painter
When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________. until just before they make contact with the limit switch, and then hand cranked to their final position to their final position with the winch operating at slow speed to the embarkation deck, and then hand cranked to their final position to the bar stop, and then hand cranked to their final position
The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led __________. to the foremost point on the ship up and down from the main deck forward and inside of all obstructions forward and outside of all obstructions
On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the releasing lever releases __________. both falls at the same time even if the boat has not reached the water the painter the after boat fall only if the boat is waterborne both falls at the same time only if the boat is waterborne
How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged? Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls Spliced into the ring on the stem post Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls
When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released __________. after the boat is released into the water before the boat is lowered from the embarkation level before the boat is lowered from the stowed position as the boat-fall blocks break clear of the davit head
In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released? Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head After all people have been embarked After the limit switch is activated
When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the embarkation deck by the __________. falls boat hooks frapping lines tricing pendants
Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits? Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake
Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________. lift the brake handle release the gripes release tricing pendants put the cap on the drain
In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat __________. on the lee side with the wind from astern with the wind dead ahead on the windward side
Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the __________. boat plug sail life preservers oars
When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________. with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat on only the after falls from the falls to the main deck of the vessel on only the forward falls
When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________. at the embarkation deck after the boat is in the water before the gripes are released before the boat is moved from the davits
What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter? Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship. Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind about broad on the quarter of your ship.
When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter should be secured __________. only after the falls have been attached well aft in the lifeboat about amidships in the lifeboat well forward in the lifeboat
In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin? Frapping line Rottmer release Winch remote control wire Tricing line
When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________. approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet breaking seas on the bow approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the current rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue tripped between breakers drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the bow while the seas carry the boat toward the beach
If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________. head directly into the beach by staying between the crests of the waves keep the bow into the seas with the sea anchor out over the bow, and row to meet the breaking waves keep the bow directly in toward the beach, and tow the sea anchor off the stern ride in on the back of a large breaker
You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________. take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy sea head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow heavy put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will go
An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________. only when there is a load on the cable only when the load is taken off the cable only when activated by the controls at the lowering station at any time
The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________. when there is no load on the cable when there is a load on the cable when the engine is started only when the doors are closed
If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________. allowed to sit anywhere loaded equally on both sides with more aft loaded equally on both sides with more forward loaded more on the port side forward
During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________. pass out food and water to personnel activate the emergency release handle open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding open the doors and start the sprinkler system
When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________. the hydraulic fluid level before lifting that all personnel are seated in the craft which way the wind is blowing that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum
While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________. on approach to the platform when the cable has been attached when the craft clears the water at the embarkation deck
When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________. take the life preservers off check that hooks are fully locked in place check the fuel level open the doors
Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent __________. accidental unhooking when the falls become slack the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated accidentally the falls from rehooking after they have been released operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne
Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________. near a liferaft canister during a rain storm by other than credentialed officers in an explosive atmosphere
Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun? Wear asbestos gloves. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. Never remove the line from the rocket. All of the above.
What precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun? Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. Never remove the line from the rocket. Wear asbestos gloves. All of the above.
For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, how frequently should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew? once a week once a year twice a year once a month
According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________. 5 (%) 10 (%) 25 (%) 40 (%)
Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include __________. checking arrangements for abandon ship starting the fire pumps checking the operation of watertight doors All of the above.
What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill? Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened. All lifeboat equipment shall be examined. All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated. All of the above.
If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________. watch go to their quarters take part stay out of the way and do what they want
All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________. fuel consumption rates maintenance schedules boarding and operating procedure navigational systems
While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel is deviating from the given course and there is no follow up with corrective rudder action to return to the proper heading. The emergency operating procedure should require you to immediately change operation from __________. "control" to "hand" "gyro" to "control" "gyro" to "hand" "hand" to "gyro"
A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, you should secure the line __________. to the forward-most bitts to the base of the foremast at the stern to the forward part of the deckhouse
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines? A B C D
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines? A D B C
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. She is making more leeway than you. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines? A B C D
A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing? Throw excess weight overboard Shift weight to the stern Shift weight to the bow Shift weight to the center of the boat
If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line? There should be a catenary so the line dips into the water. The towing line between the two vessels should be clear of the water. The towing line should be taut at all times between the vessels. None of the above
You have taken another vessel in tow at sea. You can tell that the towing speed is too fast when the __________. tow line feels like it is "jumping" when touched towed vessel goes "in irons" vessels are not in step catenary comes clear of the water
You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances __________. the vessel towed should slip first the towing vessel should slip first they should slip simultaneously either vessel may slip first
You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE? The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be immediately astern of the towing vessel. The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be just forward of your bow. The strain of the tow is taken by the riding pawl, chain stopper, and anchor windlass brake. The anchor cable should be led out through a chock, if possible, to avoid a sharp nip at the hawsepipe lip.
You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, you must __________. compare the rate of drift between the ships install chafing gear on the towline have traveling lizards rigged to guide the towline while it is paid-out secure the bitter end of the towing hawser to prevent loss if the tow is slipped
You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway? Gradually apply power until catenary almost breaks the water, but keep the catenary in the water. Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is just clear of the water, then reduce speed to that necessary to keep the line clear of the water. Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is taut and then continue at that speed until towing speed is attained. If the towline is properly adjusted and weighted you can order slow or dead slow and the towline will act as a spring to absorb the initial shock.
Life jackets should be stowed in __________. messrooms locked watertight containers survival craft readily accessible locations
Life jackets should be marked with the __________. vessel's home port vessel's name maximum weight allowed stowage space assigned
Life jackets should be stowed in __________. messrooms readily accessible locations locked watertight containers survival craft
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged? They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. They can be used for children. They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. They should be replaced.
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged? They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. They should be replaced. They can be used for children.
Kapok life jackets should NOT be __________. left on open decks stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted used as seats, pillows, or foot rests All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal flotation devices)? Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets. Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used. Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers? Kapok life preservers must have vinyl-covered pad inserts. Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards. Life preservers are not designed to turn a person's face clear of the water when unconscious. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life preservers.
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets? Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
What is the difference between a Type One PFD life jack and a Type Five PFD work vest? A Type One PFD Life Jacket is designed for cold weather only The work vest has a higher buoyancy rating than a life jacket A work vest will not float an unconscious person face up Life jackets are more comfortable to wear while working the barges
An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________. whistle and hand held flare whistle, strobe light and reflective tape whistle, hand held flare and sea dye marker air bottle for breathing
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. The suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia indefinitely. The suit's oil resistance is such that it will be serviceable and be usable after exposure to gasoline or mineral spirits without needing to be specially treated.
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? The suit's oil resistance is such that it will be serviceable and be usable after exposure to gasoline or mineral spirits without needing to be specially treated. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. The suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia indefinitely.
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure to flame and burning. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship.
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires twice the time to climb a ladder than without the suit.
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires 1.5 times more time to climb a ladder than without the suit. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypoglycemia for weeks.
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer swimming in burning oil. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. The suit may be stored in a machinery space where the ambient temperature is 160°F. The primary color of the suit's exterior may be red, orange or yellow.
Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use? Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. They should be tight fitting. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket.
Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use? A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket. They should be tight fitting.
What statement about immersion suits is TRUE? Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be replaced. No stowage container for immersion suits may be capable of being locked. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated using light machine oil or mineral oil. Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on deck.
Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE? Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on deck. After purchasing, the suit should be stowed in the storage bag in which it was received. Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be replaced. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated using light machine oil or mineral oil.
You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken? Replace the suit. Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is provided; no other action is necessary. Replace the inflation bladder. Take it out of service and repair in accordance with the manufacturers instructions.
Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE? Immersion suits must have a PFD light attached to the front shoulder area. Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed with the suit. Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to provide maximum protection. After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag and hung on a hanger where readily accessible.
How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated? It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped. It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and reacting with a chemical therein.
The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. only after two hours in the water before entry into the water only after four hours in the water upon entry into the water
An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________. air bottle for breathing sea dye marker whistle, light and retroreflective material orange smoke canister
An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________. orange smoke canister sea dye marker air bottle for breathing whistle, light and retroreflective material
How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated? It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. It inflates by seawater bleeding into the inflation bladder and reacting with a chemical. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped.
The external inflation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________. before you enter the water after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy after you enter the water after one hour in the water
You are testing the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken? Replace the suit. Replace the inflation bladder. Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is provided; no other action is necessary. Contact the manufacturer for repair instructions.
The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. only after two hours in the water upon entry into the water before entry into the water only after four hours in the water
Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges? Spare charges shall be stowed in watertight containers on deck. If the unit cannot be charged by the vessel's personnel, one spare unit shall be carried in lieu of spare charges. Regulations concerning spare charges do not apply to unmanned barges. Spare charges shall be carried for at least 50 percent of each size and variety required on board.
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture? 48 months 42 months 36 months 30 months
By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture? 24 months 36 months 42 months 54 months
Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________. six months twelve months eighteen months twenty-four months
What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for? 1 and 1/2 years 2 years 3 and 1/2 years 5 years
Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. a towing connection an oil lantern canned milk a portable radio
The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate __________. automatically when the raft is inflated by a light sensor by a switch at each light by turning the globe clockwise
What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet? 1 2 3 4
Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours? 6 12 18 24
A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a speed of at least __________. 6 knots in smooth water 3 knots in rough water 3 knots in smooth water 6 knots in rough water
Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat? It must be able to maintain a loaded speed of 6 knots. It has a sufficient fuel capacity, if motorized, for 48 hours of operation. It is propelled by engine or hand-propelling gear. All of the above.
When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________. 12° 16°
Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________. 6 times the diameter of the wire rope 8 times the diameter of the wire rope 12 times the diameter of the wire rope 16 times the diameter of the wire rope
The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________. a safe speed only specified not more than 120 feet per minute not more than 90 feet per minute not less than 120 feet per minute
The quantity of fuel required to be carried in a motor lifeboat is __________. 90 gallons the quantity needed for 48 hours continuous operation the quantity needed for 24 hours continuous operation 55 gallons
A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of __________. 12 hours 18 hours 24 hours 36 hours
Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________. two rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type three rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type five rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliances is __________. 300 lbs 500 lbs 1000 lbs 1500 lbs
Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months? 18 months 24 months 42 months 60 months
The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to a period of __________. 24 months 36 months 42 months 60 months
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or, from the date of manufacture, not later than __________. 6 months 12 months 24 months 42 months
How are lifelines attached to a life float? Securely attached around the outside in bights no longer than three feet With an approved safety hook or shackle By serving By splicing one end of the line around the apparatus
The lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________. be at least 3/8 inch diameter and properly secured around the sides and ends of the device be festooned in bights not longer than three feet long have a seine float in each bight unless the line is an inherently buoyant material All of the above.
A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________. rigid liferaft inflatable liferaft survival capsule life float
Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers? Life jacket Buoyant vest Buoyant cushion Ring life buoy
Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean service? Credentialed deck officer Able seaman Certificated person All of the above.
What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service? Two Three Four Five
What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service? twice the distance from the main deck to the light waterline or 50 feet whichever is greater 60 fathoms the distance from the main deck to the light waterline two times the distance from the boat deck to the light waterline or 50 feet whichever is greater
On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed? above the freeboard deck away from heat in an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat on the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead on or near the navigating bridge
How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired? Semiannually At the Master's discretion Monthly Annually
The regulations require that inspected vessels on an international voyage, other than small passenger vessels, must carry which of the following distress signals on or near the navigating bridge? 6 hand red flares, and 6 hand orange smoke signals 12 hand combination flares and orange smoke signals 12 hand red flares 12 rocket parachute flares
On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________. bailer fishing kit sponge whistle
Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested __________. weekly every 2 weeks monthly every 3 months
Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB. A non self-propelled vessel in tow A fishing vessel A towing vessel A sailing vessel
Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry? Class A Category 1 Class B Class C
The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________. monthly every 3 months weekly every 2 months
The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________. referring to the shipping articles examining the plate on the outside of the raft container examining the Certificate of Inspection referring to the Muster List ("Station Bill")
According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________. at the liferaft stowage location on the Muster List ("Station Bill") on the Certificate of Inspection in the Operations Manual
Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________. 12 months 15 months 17 months 18 months
Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be reinspected no later than __________. Apr-04 Jan-03 Jun-03 Jan-07
If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained? They do not need any maintenance. Have them sent ashore to an approved maintenance facility annually. Have them serviced by the shipyard annually. Have your crew check them annually.
Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually __________. sent to the steamship company shore repair facility sent to the Coast Guard for servicing overhauled by the ship's crew sent to a Coast Guard approved service facility
Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft? The Chief Mate A certificated lifeboatman An approved servicing facility Shipyard personnel
Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________. six months twenty-four months eighteen months twelve months
Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry at least __________. 2 persons 4 persons 6 persons 8 persons
A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry __________. 8 liters of fresh water 12 units of provisions 12 liters of fresh water 24 units of provisions
The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________. day week month 3 months
Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________. knife towing connection lifeline All of the above.
The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________. on a cord hanging from the canopy in a special pocket near the forward entrance in a pocket on the first aid kit in one of the equipment bags
Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________. orange smoke signal Very pistol lantern air horn
Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night? The water light Orange dye marker Red flares Smoke marker
Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________. 12 hours 1 day 2 days 4 days
If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be? Sufficiently long enough to reach the water when the vessel has an adverse list of 15° 80 feet One third the length from the bow to where the lifeboat is stowed 160 feet
When launching an open lifeboat by falls, the boathooks should be __________. used for fending off secured forward and aft where readily available used for picking up survivors in the water secured amidships where they will not hinder the personnel
The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________. specified by the Coast Guard determined by the Master specified by the manufacturer None
A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat should __________. drain the hydraulic pressure before lowering the craft be the first individual to board the craft have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat All of the above.
All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________. 6 months year 18 months two years
The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered at least once every __________. week month three months year
If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once every __________. 3 months 6 months year 2 years
What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels? There may not be more than two launching appliances on the same deck. Launching appliances must be of the gravity type. Each lifeboat must have a launching appliance. All of the above.
Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________. 2 months 6 months 4 months year
According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals? Weight tested Proof tested Renewed End-for-ended
"Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry? 10 (%) 50 (%) 75 (%) 100 (%)
For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________. 1 life preserver 1 seasickness kit 3 liters of water 1 unit of provisions
The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage, is __________. 1 liter 2 liters 3 liters 4 liters
On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with __________. 2 pounds of condensed milk a life preserver 3 liters of water a signaling whistle
How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route? One Two Three None
The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in cycles of __________. 5 minutes on and 10 minutes off 10 minutes on and 5 minutes off 15 minutes on and 5 minutes off 15 minutes on and 10 minutes off
A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at least once in every __________. 2 months 3 months 4 months 5 months
Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance? A coastwise vessel of 550 GT An oceangoing vessel of 140 GT An river-going vessel of 760 GT All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance? Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually. A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months. It shall be fired at least once in every three months. No drills are required.
Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________. be made of synthetic material be 250 meters in length have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs be of a light color
What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel? The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. A drill should be conducted every three months. A regular service line must be used when it's fired. A regular projectile must be used when it's fired.
What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel? The auxiliary line must be of a light color. The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. A drill on its use must be held once every three months. The auxiliary line must be at least 1500 feet long.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________. provided for each person onboard provided for all personnel of watch readily accessible to persons in the engine room All of the above.
Lifejackets should be stowed in __________. the forepeaks readily accessible spaces the pumproom locked watertight containers
Life preservers must be marked with the __________. maximum weight allowed stowage space assigned vessel's name vessel's home port
Immersion suits must be stowed __________. on top of lockers on open deck areas where readily accessible in the pilothouse
What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service? 6 8 12 14
How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry? 12 14 18 24
Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys required for the vessel is __________. 2 4 6 8
On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on __________. ring life buoy lifeboat oars lifeboats All of the above.
Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service? Great Lakes service river service coastwise service None of the above
Where should muster lists be posted? In crew's accommodation spaces In the engine room On the navigating bridge All of the above.
If a passenger vessel navigating the Great Lakes is required to carry 8 life buoys, what is the allowable minimum number of these buoys that must have self-igniting lights attached? 2 6 4 8
Great Lakes vessels, using liferafts, must have sufficient liferaft capacity on each side of the vessel to accommodate at least __________. 150% of the crew 100% of the persons on board 100% of the persons normally assigned to those spaces 50% of the persons on board
Great Lakes cargo vessels, having a liferaft stowed more than 100 meters from the bow or stern, must have at least how many liferafts? One Two Three Four
Where, due to the arrangement of the vessel, lifejackets may become inaccessible, additional lifejackets shall be carried __________. as determined by the OCMI for the forward lifeboats for the people on bridge watch for 50% of the crew of the vessel, not including those assigned to engineering duties
A 750 foot passenger vessel operating on the Great Lakes, not subject to SOLAS regulations, is required to carry how many ring life buoys? 24 18 12 6
Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes vessels? All lifelines shall be able to reach the water at the vessel's lightest draft with a 20° list. All vessels over 3,000 gross tons must be fitted with gravity davits. All davit installations shall have 3 lifelines fitted to a davit span. All of the above.
Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water regular checks of bilge levels use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise
You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________. hypothermia caused by cold temperature collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures starvation asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________. find some wood for a fire drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter get the provisions out of the raft set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in a __________. $500 criminal penalty charged against the Master $1500 criminal penalty charged against the Master $1500 civil penalty charged against the person in charge of the vessel $650 civil penalty charged against the person in charge of the vessel
Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment __________. obligates the operator to moor or anchor the vessel immediately does not, in itself, constitute a violation of the Act requires immediate, emergency repairs constitutes a violation of the Act
According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log? Times of beginning and end of watch period Daily statement about the condition of the required radiotelephone equipment Distress and alarm signals transmitted or intercepted Routine navigational traffic
A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________. civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license All of the above.
A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________. civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel All of the above.
If your radiotelephone fails while underway, __________. you must visually signal oncoming vessels you must immediately tie up in the nearest port until the radiotelephone is repaired you must anchor until the radiotelephone is repaired the loss of the radiotelephone must be considered in navigating the vessel
If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must __________. exercise due diligence to restore the system at the earliest practicable time arrange for the repair of the system to be completed within 48 hours immediately anchor your vessel and arrange for repairs to the system moor your vessel at the nearest dock available and arrange for repairs to the system
You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. You must __________. use the bridge-to-bridge VHF-FM designated frequency only to exchange navigational information or necessary tests have on board an operator who holds a restricted radiotelephone operator permit or higher license, as well as a FCC ship station license maintain a listening watch and communicate in English All of the above.
Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least __________. 3 years from date of entry 1 year from date of entry 2 years from date of entry 4 years from date of entry
If you use obscene, indecent, or profane language over the radiotelephone, you can be __________. assessed a fine not to exceed $20,000 assessed a fine of up to $5,000, imprisonment of up to three years, or both assessed a fine not to exceed $11,000, imprisonment of not more than two years, or both imprisoned up to five years
The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for __________. ten years two years one year the life of the vessel
What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations? $5,000 fine and imprisonment for not more than one year, or both $1,000 fine or imprisonment for not more than two years Civil penalty of no more than $650 Civil penalty of no more than $5,000
The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a __________. restricted radiotelephone operator permit second-class radio operator's license mate's license seaman's document
A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________. U.S. Coast Guard Federal Communications Commission Maritime Mobile Service Commission Radio Technical Commission for Marine Services
The Master or person in charge of a vessel subject to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" who fails to comply with the Act or the regulations there under may be charged a civil penalty of __________. 2000 1500 650 1000
If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard? Certificate of Inspection Copy of ship to shore channels List of ship stations Radio station license
A vessel which violates the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may be charged a civil penalty of __________. 100 650 1000 1500
Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least __________. 2 years from date of entry 1 year from date of entry 4 years from date of entry 3 years from date of entry
Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more than __________. 25 watts 50 watts 75 watts 100 watts
The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________. midnight beginning of the watch any convenient time noon
What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations? 50 meters 12 meters 20 meters 25 meters
Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating? All power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length All passenger vessels less than 100 gross tons All towing vessels 26 feet in length or greater All of the above.
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? Passenger vessel 50 gross tons or less, carrying passengers for hire Towing vessels 25 feet or less in length, engaged in towing operations Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation of other vessels in or near a channel or fairway An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying one or more passengers for hire Towing vessel 26 feet in length or greater Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or greater All of the above.
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length, operating on inland waters Towing vessel 25 feet or less in length Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation of other vessels in or near a channel or fairway Passenger vessel of 50 GT or less, carrying one or more passengers for hire
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? All towing vessels 25 feet or less in length All passenger vessels of 50 gross tons or less, carrying one or more passengers Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or longer An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge
The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat? A 100 GT towboat, 24 feet in length A 90-foot towboat tied to the pier A 400 GT towboat anchored A 60-foot towboat pushing ahead
The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to __________. every towing vessel of 16 feet or over in length while navigating all aircraft operating on the water every vessel of 50 GT and upward, carrying one or more persons for hire every power-driven vessel of 20 meters and upward while navigating
Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone? A 34-foot vessel engaged in towing A dredge operating in a channel A 12-meter private yacht A vessel of 100 GT carrying 50 passengers for hire
General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log are that __________. erasures are not allowed logs must be kept in an orderly manner it must identify the vessel's name and official number All of the above.
Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________. speak English repair the unit send Morse Code speak a language the vessel's crew will understand
By regulation, you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone for a minimum of __________. six months one year two years thirty months
According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log must contain __________. a summary of all distress calls and messages a record of your transmissions only the home address of the vessel's Master or owner a record of all routine calls
Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies? As high as possible on the vessel Adjacent to the main power source In a separate radio compartment On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of __________. the Master or person in charge of the vessel a person designated by the Master a person on board to pilot the vessel All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels? The officer in charge of the wheelhouse is considered to have the radiotelephone watch. There cannot be a radiotelephone located anywhere except in the wheelhouse. Only distress messages may be transmitted over channel 13. Only the Master of the vessel is allowed to speak over the radiotelephone.
All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item? At least two lifeboats A radio direction finder A radiotelephone None of the above
The regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the __________. U.S. Coast Guard Department of Defense Department of Transportation Federal Communications Commission
One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________. trapping and/or poisoning the rats eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port
A Deratization Exemption Certificate is valid for a period of __________. no time limit so long as Certificate of Sanitation is valid no time limit so long as no evidence of rodents aboard 1 year 6 months
What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate? 6 months Specific voyage 1 year 2 years
Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________. domestic water tank feed-water system freshwater sanitary system fire-main system
Normally Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source __________. has been treated with chlorine is approved by the Public Health Service is not from surface water is used by a city
Normally Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking? Oxygen Nitrogen Chlorine Carbon
Normally It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________. prevent explosions filter the incoming air stop insects from entering prevent backups
Normally Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is __________. one three six twelve
Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________. eliminating potential fuel sources allowing better access in an emergency improving personnel qualifications eliminating trip hazards
In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service? Once each day Once each week Once each month Once each trip
On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________. Master and union delegate Master and Chief Engineer Master and Chief Mate Master and Second Mate
The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the __________. Chief Engineer Chief Mate First Assistant Master
What represents poor sanitary procedures? Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water. Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge. After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at least 170°F (76.7°C). Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather.
What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus? The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi above atmospheric pressure. The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding. In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can be operated manually to give the wearer air. When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last? About 8-10 minutes About 4-5 minutes About 18-20 minutes About 12-15 minutes
The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to __________. allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack? One Two Three Four
A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen resuscitate an unconscious person make underwater repairs to barges
To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should __________. wear a self-contained breathing apparatus test the air with an Orsat apparatus wear a canister type gas mask test the air with a pure air indicator
After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean? The air bottle needs to be refilled. The unit is working properly. The face mask is not sealed properly. The air supply hose has a leak.
When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________. completely closed pinched to check the air flow completely open immediately disconnected
When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, the air flows __________. directly to the face piece through the regulator from the bottle into the atmosphere directly to the air supply bottle
When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________. completely open disconnected completely closed partially opened
The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened if __________. the regulator of the breathing apparatus malfunctions you are entering a space containing poisonous vapors the face piece of the breathing device is too tight you are entering a space containing explosive gases
The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________. the physical exertion of the person wearing the device pressure differences in the atmosphere the length of the hose attached to the face piece spaces containing poisonous vapors
The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation? Oxygen deficient spaces Fighting fires that produce heavy smoke Underwater search Compartments containing poisonous vapors
Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried? Emergency gear locker Bridge or pilothouse area The same location as the equipment it reactivates Where they can be readily found
You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"? One Two Three Four
You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you are advancing? 1 2 3 4
You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right? 1 2 3 4
You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately? 1 2 3 4
You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out? 1 2 3 4
You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance? 1 2 3 4
You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help? 1 2 3 4
You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"? 1 2 3 4
A 2,000 GT tankship is required to carry __________. two canister type gas masks if such vessel is authorized to carry grade A, B, C or D liquids emergency outfits only on an international voyage one oxygen breathing apparatus with enough lifeline to reach from the open deck to any part of the tanks two self-contained breathing apparati
Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________. locked cabinet in the machinery space unlocked cabinet in the machinery space location near a fire hydrant separate and accessible location
What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus required to last? 10 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes
One function of a bulwark is to __________. help keep the deck dry prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plate reinforce the side stringers protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel
Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks __________. permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergency provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring lines prevent stress concentration in the bulwark allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________. furnaced plate rolled plate compound plate flat plate
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I? keel center pillar girder garboard strake
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam? E H L M
In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G is known as? turn of the bilge garboard stringer plate entrance
In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as? double bottom bilge tank floor space flooding barrier
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K? floor stringer longitudinal frame girder
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L? bilge keel longitudinal web frame side keel
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal? M C L E
In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate? cant frame intercostal stringer web frame
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake? A B G H
In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as? garboard strake bilge strake outboard keel plate sheer strake
In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor? Lightened Non-watertight Open Intercostal
In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D? seam butt sheet line span
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt? J E F D
In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done? reduce construction costs serve as a crack arrestor and prevent hull girder failure increase the strength in a highly stressed area provide the flexibility inherent in a riveted seam
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F? erection girder deck support pillar
In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter? A C I N
In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as? sheer strake deck longitudinal deck strake stringer plate
In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as? spar decking ceiling furring flooring
In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as? floor riders tank-top rider plating ceiling inner bottom
In illustration D041DG below, which is the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars? 2 3 4 5
In illustration D041DG below, which of the following is the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made? 1 5 4 3
In illustration D041DG below, which of the following is the symbol for displacement? 1 2 3 4
In illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 1 refer to? angle of inclination change of draft centerline displacement
In illustration D041DG below, which symbol is the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured? 5 4 3 2
In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 2 represent? bilge level baseline beam limit displacement
In illustration D041DG below, which is the symbol for amidships? 2 3 4 5
In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 3 represent? amidships displacement baseline forward perpendicular
In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 5 represent? counterflood limits displacement leverage center centerline
The term "pintle" and "gudgeon" are associated with the __________. steering engine jumbo boom rudder anchor windlass
The projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder are called __________. pintles rudder lugs bases gudgeons
The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with the vessel's __________. stern cargo hatch steering engine forecastle
A Kort nozzle is a(n) __________. intake valve on a diesel engine hollow tube surrounding the propeller used to improve thrust nozzle attached to a firefighting hose piston cylinder on a diesel engine
A "contra-guide" is a type of __________. rudder steering engine bow thruster cargo gear
The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________. lifting flanges rudder keys shoes of the rudder rudder palms
A chock __________. permits easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency provides openings through the bulwark for mooring lines prevents stress concentration in the bulwark is a deck fitting used to shackle gear to the deck
What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks? Allow water which may be shipped on deck to flow off rapidly Prevent the formation of any unusual stress concentration points Lighten the above deck weight caused by a solid bulwark Permit easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency
A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is called a __________. cleat bitt capstan bollard
A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE? The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of fire by conduction. The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be closely checked for galvanic corrosion. The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a method that insulates the two metals. If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires additional expansion joints to prevent fracture.
Holes in the bulwark, which allow deck water to drain into the sea, are __________. doggers swash ports freeing ports fidleys
When using the term "limber system" one is referring to a __________. cleaning system weight reduction system strengthening system drainage system
Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks? Cuts down free surface effect Lowers the center of buoyancy without decreasing GM Decreases weight because extra stiffeners are unneeded Increases the rolling period
The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by __________. transverse deck beams longitudinal deck beams bottom longitudinals face plates
Floors aboard ship are __________. frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship longitudinal angle bars fastened to a surface for strength longitudinal beams in the extreme bottom of a ship from which the ship's ribs start transverse members of the ships frame which support the decks
Aboard ship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates are called __________. girders floors stringers intercostals
Frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened are called __________. stringers intercostals floors tank top supports
Vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors are called __________. stiffeners boss plates buckler plates breast hooks
What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships? They are less expensive to construct because of increased access space. The center of gravity of a loaded bulk cargo ship may be raised to produce a more comfortable roll. The floors and longitudinals distribute the upward push of the water on the ship's bottom. The tank top forms a second skin for the vessel.
Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure? There must be twice as much vent area as the area of the fill line. Each vent for the tank must be equal to the area of the tank filling line. The tanks must be protected by overflows. The total area of the vents or the overflow shall be at least 125% of the area of the fill line.
Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE? They are lighter than open floors. They must be watertight. They are built of structural frames connected by angle struts and stiffeners, with flanged plate brackets at each end. They may have lightening, limber, or air holes cut into them.
The "inner bottom" is the __________. compartment between the tank top and shell of the vessel inner side of the vessel's shell tank top space between two transverse bottom frames
What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision? Pipe lines must run vertically from the tank to a point above the margin line before turning fore or aft towards the pump. Separate lines are provided for filling and pumping these tanks. All tanks must be served by the fewest possible number of pipes to reduce the possibility of rupture. Suction lines are fitted with a non-return valve
The usual depth of a beam bracket is __________. same depth as the beam 5 times the depth of the beam 10 times the depth of the beam 2 1/2 times the depth of the beam
A deck beam does NOT __________. act as a web to prevent plate wrinkling due to twisting action on the vessel act as a tie to keep the sides of the ship in place lessen the longitudinal stiffness of the vessel act as a beam to support vertical deck loads
The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist __________. shearing stresses racking stresses sagging stresses hogging stresses
Beams are cambered to __________. increase their strength relieve deck stress provide drainage from the decks All of the above.
Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck? Camber Deadrise Flare Freeboard
The strength of a deck will be increased by adding __________. hatch beams sheer camber deck beam brackets
The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________. "H" Beam pillar "I" Beam pillar octagonal pillar circular type pillar
A carling is used aboard ship __________. to prevent the anchor from fouling when the brake is released to provide an extra heavy fitting in a heavy lift cargo rig to stiffen areas under points of great stress between beams as a connecting strap between the butted ends of plating
A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________. shelter deck orlop deck main deck weather deck
The ceiling is __________. material driven into seams or cracks to prevent leaking a wooden protection placed over the tank top the overhead in berthing compartments None of the above are correct
The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is called __________. toms shores ceiling frames
Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations) the uppermost deck to which transverse watertight bulkheads extend the uppermost complete deck the lowermost deck to which transverse watertight bulkheads extend any deck extending from stem to stern
The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________. floodable length permissible length compartment standard factor of subdivision
Camber, in a ship, is usually measured in __________. feet per feet of length inches per feet of breadth feet per feet of breadth inches per feet of length
The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________. floodable length factor of subdivision compartment standard permissible length
In ship construction, keel scantlings should be the greatest __________. one-third the distance from the bow at each frame one-third the distance from the stern amidships
Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________. of severest racking stresses resistance to grounding is at a maximum amidships connections between forebody and afterbody are most crucial of maximum longitudinal bending moments
The "margin plate" is the __________. outer strake of plating on each side of the main deck of a vessel uppermost continuous strake of plating on the shell of a vessel outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom plate which sits atop the center vertical keel
The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with the __________. tank top engine room crew's quarters main deck
A term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship is __________. shear plating outer bottom bottom floor tank top
In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________. longitudinals web plates side stringers girders
In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________. stringers web frames floors margin plates
When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________. transversely framed longitudinally framed web framed intermittently framed
In ship construction, frame spacing is __________. reduced at the bow and stern greater at the bow and stern uniform over the length of the vessel, with the exception of the machinery spaces, where it is reduced due to increased stresses uniform over the length of the vessel
Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system? The numerous longitudinal frames cause excessive broken stowage. The transverse system provides better support to the varying cargo densities on a break bulk vessel. The transverse system is more resistant to hog and sag stresses. The deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo.
Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________. isometric system of framing transverse system of framing longitudinal system of framing centerline system of framing
What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels? To support the overhang of the stern To provide strength to shell plating at the stern To support the plating of a cylindrical tank To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decks
Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a vessel are called __________. intercostals brackets stiffeners side longitudinals
Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the vessel's side plating are called __________. stringers side stiffeners intercostals side frames
The term "scantlings" refers to the __________. placement of a vessel's load line measurements of structural members draft of a vessel requirements for ship's gear
The garboard strake is the __________. row of plating nearest the keel raised flange at the main deck edge riveting pattern most commonly used in ship construction riveted crack arrester strap on all-welded ships
The strake on each side of the keel is called a __________. sheer strake garboard strake gatewood strake insulation strake
In vessel construction, the garboard strake is __________. located next to and parallel to the gunwale another term for the rub rail another term for the bilge keel located next to and parallel to the keel
Another name for the garboard strake is the __________. A strake stringer plate Z strake side keel plate
The term "strake" is used in reference to __________. rudder mountings anchor gear hull plating vessel framing
The joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side is called a __________. strake bevel bond seam
The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________. seam butt bond bevel
Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________. drop strakes throughs stealers voids
To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. This plate is known as a __________. lap strake cover plate joiner stealer plate
Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding? Flush In-and-Out Joggled Clinker
What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating? Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints Reduces frictional resistance Reduces plate stress Reduces weight
Which is NOT an advantage of the flush method of welded shell plating? Reduces plate stress Reduces weight Reduces frictional resistance Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints
Shell plating is __________. a hatch cover the outer plating of a vessel the galvanizing on steel synonymous with decking
The function of the bilge keel is to __________. add strength to the bilge reduce the rolling of the vessel serve as the vessel's main strength member protect the vessel's hull when alongside a dock
Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls as the __________. rolling increases draft decreases pitching increases list increases
Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT? They attach to a low stress area. They provide support when the vessel is dry docked. They increase resistance to rolling. They are critical strength members and require careful design consideration.
The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________. garboard strake limber strake stringer strake sheer strake
To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________. breasthook joiner intercostal plate apron plate
Panting frames are located in the __________. forward double bottoms fore and after peaks centerline tanks on tankships after double bottoms
A thirty pound plate would be __________. 3/4" thick 1/2" thick 1" thick 3/8" thick
The thickness of a 30.6 pound plate is __________. 3/8" 1/2" 3/4" 1"
What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel? Designer's waterline Molded line Keel line Base line
What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating? Molded Tonnage Register Effective
Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line? Deadrise Sheer Camber Molded height
By definition, a "spar deck" is the __________. upper or weather deck above the main strength deck lower most continuous deck not broken by water tight bulkheads after most weather deck above the main strength deck deck of light construction below the main or strength deck
The point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction is the __________. center line amidships mid-body half length
The vessel's "quarter" is located __________. dead astern abeam on either side of the stern just forward of the beam on either side
What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post? Length on the waterline Register length Length overall Length between perpendiculars
The space above the engine room is called the __________. noble gold locker fidley middle hatch
The purpose of a bilge well is to __________. collect water to be pumped out provide access for the pneumercator afford access to the shell through the double bottoms provide a base line for sounding measurements
A "strongback" refers to a __________. spanner stay bar securing a cargo port centerline vertical bulkhead deep beam
The beam of a vessel refers to the __________. molded depth of the vessel internal cubic capacity width of the vessel depth between decks
Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________. bulwark sheer strake deck line gunwale bar
Molded depth is measured from the __________. inside of the shell outside of the shell top of the garboard stake top of the center vertical keel
The upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge is called __________. sheer camber rise of bottom rake
What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction? Deadrise Camber Flare Sheer
What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body? Sheer Entrance Flare Run
What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section? Amidships Molded length Half length Middle body
What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body? Flow Counter Run Stern
What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline? sheer tumble home flare deadrise
What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline? Deadrise Tumble home Camber Flare
The fittings used to secure a watertight door are known as __________. dogs clamps latches clasps
In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________. heavy steel beam crow bar wedge device to force a water tight door against the frame
The perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains, is called a __________. harping manger cradle draft
The purpose of sheer in ship construction is to __________. eliminate the need for margin plates allow the ship to ride waves with drier decks eliminate the need for butt straps give greater strength at the deck edge
A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________. stairs a companion way 'tween-decks All of the above.
A cofferdam is __________. a heavy fore-and-aft beam under the deck made by placing two bulkheads a few feet apart a member that gives fore-and-aft strength any deck below the main deck and above the lowest deck
The Sheer Plan __________. has the forebody to the right of centerline and afterbody to the left of centerline is an endwise view of the ship's molded form is usually drawn for the port side only shows a longitudinal side elevation
The half-breadth plan is __________. usually drawn for the port side only an endwise view of the ship's molded form a plan with the forebody to right of centerline and afterbody to the left of centerline a longitudinal side elevation
The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________. plan made looking down on the ship, showing it's hull cut horizontally by the first set of planes vertical view made looking up in the ship, with the keel at the center endwise view of the ship's molded form longitudinal side elevation view
Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________. deck line gunwale bar sheer strake bulwark
What is the name given to the distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main continuous deck of a vessel? The draft The freeboard The camber Buoyancy
A long ton is __________. 1,000 pounds 2,000 pounds 2,240 pounds 2,400 pounds
A short ton is a unit of weight consisting of __________. 2,240 pounds 1,000 pounds 2,000 pounds 2,205 pounds
What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage? Net tonnage is tonnage of cargo compared to tonnage of whole ship. There is no difference. Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductions for machinery and other areas. Net tonnage is the net weight of the ship.
Gross tonnage indicates the vessel's __________. volume in cubic feet draft in feet total weight including cargo displacement in metric tons
Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________. steel plates wooden hatch boards steel hatch boards press board
A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________. exemption space tonnage deck tonnage opening cofferdam
The term that indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry is __________. bale cubic loaded displacement deadweight gross tonnage
The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can carry, is the __________. loaded displacement deadweight bale cubic gross tonnage
Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure? Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection. The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads. The welding must be completed before the riveting commences. The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting.
A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________. 48 (%) 90 (%) 100 (%) 121 (%)
What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate? Tack Chain intermittent Continuous Staggered intermittent
The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________. butt welds plate welds fillet welds seam welds
The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________. butt welds seam welds fillet welds continuous welds
Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws? Radiographic Chemical reaction Dye penetrant Magnetic particle
Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws? Magnetic particle Dye penetrant Ultrasonic Chemical reaction
Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld? Lack of reinforcement Lack of penetration Undercut Overlap
Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and to __________. test the links of the anchor cables while being ranged check the wear of the rudder carrier bearing test welds for subsurface defects provide tail shaft clearances
The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily __________. brazing thermite welding electric arc pressure welding
A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________. abeam dead astern on either side of the stern just aft of the bow
A weight of 1,000 short tons is equivalent to __________. 2,000 pounds 2,000 kips 2,240 long tons 1,500 foot-pounds
"Limber" is a term associated with __________. securing gear emergency gear drainage deck cargo storage
A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________. cellular framed longitudinally framed transversely framed web framed
While in dry dock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves __________. testing and examining the anchor cables for defective links drilling or sonic-testing the hull to determine the plate thickness taking the vessel's offsets to check for hull deformation measuring the thickness of the tail shaft liner
The best information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel is contained in the __________. ship's docking plan general arrangement plan shell expansion plan docking diagram
Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________. a list tumble home excessive trim excessive deadrise
Which of the following requires the vessel to be dry-docked? Inspection of the tail shaft liner Cleaning of the hull Verification of load line measurements Inspection of the double bottoms
A large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for dry docking of ships is known as a __________. slipway caisson dock graving dock ground warp
Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE? The stability of the vessel increases as a dock is pumped out due to the support of the keel blocks. As the dock begins to support the weight of the vessel, stability calculations are based on the ship and dock as a single unit. Every ton of weight bearing on the blocks acts as if a ton of weight was removed at keel level. When the ship touches the blocks, the beam for stability purposes increases to the beam of the dry-dock.
What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply? Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention. Key the microphone several times before transmitting again. Report the problem to the head electrician. Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again.
The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. This information should __________. ALWAYS be included in the initial distress message be sent to a Coast Guard station FIRST be transmitted as a series of short messages, if time allows include the vessel's draft
What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio? Security Red Alert Pan Mayday
You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers? The time of day The nature of the distress Your radio call sign Your position by latitude and longitude
You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take? Do not acknowledge receipt because you are too far away to take action Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have acknowledged Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may acknowledge receipt
You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take? Do not acknowledge because you are too far away to take action. Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have acknowledged. Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message. Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may acknowledge receipt.
You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take? Send an urgency message about the distress. Use the signal MAYDAY RELAY and transmit the distress message. Transmit a message as though your vessel was in distress. Do not acknowledge the distress message.
You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by __________. sounding five or more short and rapid blasts on the whistle displaying a large red flag continuously sounding the fog whistle displaying three black balls in a vertical line
When a vessel signals her distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at intervals of approximately __________. 10 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 1 hour
Distress signals may be __________. smoke signals red flares sound signals Any of the above.
A man aboard a vessel, signaling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side, is indicating __________. danger, stay away all is clear, it is safe to pass a distress signal all is clear, it is safe to approach
All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT __________. the repeated raising and lowering of outstretched arms red flares a green star signal orange-colored smoke
A distress signal __________. consists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag is used to indicate doubt about another vessel's intentions may be used individually or in conjunction with other distress signals consists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus
One of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention is a/an __________. burning barrel searchlight red star shell orange smoke signal
When signaling by flag hoist, what signal indicates completion of the communication? code flag N code flag R answering pennant signal AR
A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. What action should you take? hoist flag "C" wait for further signals after a short delay hoist flag "R" expect no further flag hoists
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do? Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a pilot. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled. Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering with difficulty. Stop your vessel instantly.
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do? Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled. Stop your vessel instantly. Give the vessel a wide berth as she is carrying dangerous goods. Slow your vessel and keep well clear because she has a diver down.
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do? Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a tug. Approach the vessel with caution because she is dragging her anchor. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is requesting to communicate. Keep well clear of the vessel because she is on fire and has dangerous cargo on board or she is leaking dangerous cargo.
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do? Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because someone on board requires medical assistance. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is declaring that she is "healthy" and requests free pratique.
You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do? Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it requires assistance. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water. Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down. Keep clear of the vessel because it is engaged in pair trawling.
At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do? Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down. Approach with caution because the vessel is a fishing vessel and its nets are fouled on an obstruction. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because someone on board requires medical assistance.
You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action? Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone and begin a search because the vessel has a man overboard. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a pilot. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it is disabled. Approach with caution because the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea? "U" "H" "P" "A"
What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")? "C" "Z" "P" "H"
While using the International Code of Signals, how can the receiving station indicate that they are able to distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it? ZR ZL ZP ZK
The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2 followed by what? space, second substitute answering pennant, second substitute answering pennant, third substitute answering pennant, first substitute
How would the flag hoist 1.33 be sent? N, 1, answer pennant, 3 1, answer pennant, 3, second substitute 1, answer pennant, 3, first substitute 1, answer pennant, 3, third substitute
What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute. G421G G4214 G4211 G421G421
What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute? F213F213 F2131 F213213 F2132
How should a receiving station indicate that it cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist? hoist ZQ keep the answering pennant at the dip raise and lower the answering pennant hoist ZL
Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046°T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications? RQ A046 VF CS YQ3 A046
You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure this? Hoist CL tackline IW Hoist CL from the starboard yard and IW from the port yard. Hoist CLIW together. Any of the above will ensure the correct reading.
How does a warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship? by hoisting the merchant ship's identity signal and keeping it hoisted during the entire communication by hoisting the national ensign of the merchant vessel at the starboard yard by hoisting the code pennant, and keeping it flying during the entire communication by hoisting the flags MV close up until acknowledged and then lowering them to the dip
If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying? Navigation is closed. You should navigate with caution. The least depth of water in the channel is 8 meters. Derelict dangerous to navigation to the north. I have a male age 8 years.
What flag signal would you hoist if you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board? AM MA AL AN 1
A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. What does this signal mean? an aircraft is circling over an accident the aircraft is still afloat an aircraft is ditched in position indicated there is no danger of explosion
Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm? G 2335 Z 2335 T 2335 GMT GMT 1135PM
What would a signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with? the letter Z the letter G a code hoist to indicate Greenwich mean time to follow the letters GT
What letter is a signal indicating zone time preceded with? N T L Z
The signal T 0735 means __________. The zone time is 0735 The latitude is 7° 35' The Greenwich mean time is 0735 The longitude is 7° 35'
What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"? Date September 10 Date October 9 Distance 910 miles Longitude 9°10'
What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light? AAA TTTT EEEEE AS
What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light? AA AA CQ UNK STA
What is the standard rate of signaling by flashing light? twenty letters per minute fifty letters per minute thirty letters per minute forty letters per minute
You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". What should he respond with? his own call letters TTTT R KLIS, DE, his own call letters
How is the "call" part of a signal by flashing light made? omitting the call if the name of the station is unknown spelling the name of the station called the identity signal of the station called sending "CQ"
A message by flashing light consists of four elements, including the call, the identity, the text, and what fourth element? answer destination time ending
When signaling by flashing light, what should the signal "C" should be used to indicate? change from affirmative to negative affirmative statement question request for the identity signal of the receiving stations
Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question? N NO C RQ
When signaling by flashing light, how should you acknowledge a correctly received repetition of a signal? E AR T OK
In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender? REPEAT RPT RPB UD AA
The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light? WA RQ CS RPT
If you make an error while signaling by flashing light what action should you take? RPT, then repeat the entire signal the erase signal then continue the message with the last correctly spelled word the correction signal and re-spell the word EEE, then send the word correctly
What is the unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code? three times the length of a dot four times the length of a dot one and one-half times the length of a dot twice the length of a dot
Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp? A 1,000 GT tanker on a coastwise voyage A 200 GT tanker on an international voyage A 300 GT tanker on an intercoastal voyage All of the above.
Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use is a devise that transmits a radio signal All of the above.
Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found? These are located in FCC Part 83. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. These are located in CCIR no.476. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80.
When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship? Immediately after floating free After about one hour when the salt water activates the battery Only when keyed by the radar of another vessel Only when daylight activates the photovoltaic cell
CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________. orbiting satellites in space commercial radio stations private, commercial, and military aircraft Both A & C
Which system has the least effective radius of operation? VHF DSC MF NBDP HF SITOR NAVTEX
What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received? No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70.
What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)? DSC is to be used for transmitting and receiving distress alerts to and from other ships or coast radio stations via radio. DSC provides reception of weather and navigational warnings plus search and rescue information. DSC provides low-cost, routine communications for the vessel operator. This aids SAR authorities in tracking a vessel's position by satellite.
When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________. position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert position will automatically be sent MMSI will indicate its ocean region None of the above
What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert? It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position and situation. It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position or its situation. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset.
If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens? The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in distress to download the necessary information The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout.
Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission? Channel 70 DSC Channel 6 DSC Channel 6 Radiotelephony Channel 13 Radiotelephony and Channel 16 DSC
When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning a vessel? Immediately Only when another vessel is in sight After one hour Only after sunset
Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A SART transmitting on 406 MHz An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz Survival Craft Transceiver Radio Direction Finder (RDF)
Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? Ensuring the SART's batteries are replaced before their expiration date. Placing the SART in the test mode and verifying that the nearby PPI shows concentric circles. Measuring the SART's transmitted frequency. Inspecting and cleaning the SART's container, and clearing the immediate storage area of any debris or obstacles.
What does "EPIRB" stand for? Electronic Pulse Indicating Radio beacon Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon None of the above
Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART? X-Band Radar The autoalarm A DSC receiver S-Band Radar
After you activate your emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should __________. turn it off for five minutes every half-hour turn it off during daylight hours turn it off and on at five-minute intervals leave it on continuously
What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon